Community and Public Health Nursing

June 9, 2024
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Community and Public Health Nursing

PRACTICUM

 

Final Multiple Choice Examination

 

Questionnaire to Community and Public Health Nursing Final Exam

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____      1. A nurse is caring for an older adult with hypertension and heart disease who uses liberal amounts of table salt to season food, complaining that food does not taste good without it. What recommendations should the nurse make for this client?

a.

Instruct the client that salt can be used as long as the blood pressure remains controlled.

b.

Instruct the client to remove all salt from the diet to preserve kidney function.

c.

Recommend table salt in small amounts in conjunction with diuretics.

d.

Recommend that the client substitute herbs and spices to season food.

 

 

____      2. An 85-year-old client with diabetes, heart disease, and renal insufficiency is admitted. What action should the nurse take to prevent falls by this particular client?

a.

Provide assistance to the client in getting out of the bed or chair.

b.

Place the client in restraints to prevent movement without assistance.

c.

Maintain the client on complete bedrest with the siderails up at all times.

d.

Request that a family member remain with the client at all times to assist in ambulation.

 

 

____      3. An older adult client who has a history of falls has been placed in physical restraints after the failure of all other alternatives for fall prevention. What actions should the nurse take to ensure the safety of the client in restraints?

a.

Check the client every hour, while keeping the restraints in place.

b.

Check the client every 30 to 60 minutes, releasing the restraints every 2 hours.

c.

Check the client once each shift, releasing the restraints for feeding only.

d.

Check the client twice each shift, keeping the restraints in place.

 

 

____      4. An older adult client has become agitated and combative toward the health care personnel on the unit. What is the first action that the nurse should take at this time?

a.

Obtain an order for a sedative-hypnotic medication to reduce combative behavior.

b.

Attempt to soothe the client’s fears and reorient the client to his or her surroundings.

c.

Obtain an order to place the client’s arms in restraints to protect personnel.

d.

Arrange for the client to be transferred to a mental health facility.

 

 

____      5. An older adult client presents with signs and symptoms related to digoxin toxicity. Which age-related change can potentially result in toxic drug levels in this client?

a.

Increased total body water

b.

Decreased renal blood flow

c.

Increased gastrointestinal motility

d.

Decreased ratio of adipose tissue to lean body mass

 

 

____      6. Which of the following statements made by an older adult client alerts the nurse to the possibility of medication errors?

a.

“My husband is on the same medication, so we always take our medications together in the morning.”

b.

“I prepare all my medication for the week and place the pills in a container labeled for each day.”

c.

“When I don’t sleep well at night, I take two thyroid pills the next day instead of just one.”

d.

“I take my Coumadin every day when the nooews comes on the television.”

 

 

____      7. An 88-year-old client will be discharged from the hospital on a variety of medications. How can the nurse best ensure that the client is capable of taking the medication safely at home?

a.

Have the client actively participate in drug administration during hospitalization.

b.

Include the client’s children in discussions regarding proper medication administration.

c.

Give the client a pamphlet outlining the actions, side effects, and doses of all prescribed drugs.

d.

Make a chart for the client, showing exactly which drugs are to be taken at different times during the day.

 

 

____      8. Which best represents four subgroups of late adulthood the nurse may encounter when caring for older clients?

a.

Young old, middle old, older old, oldest old

b.

Youthful old, mid-old, older old, oldest old

c.

Young old, middle old, older old, elite old

d.

Youthful old, mid-old, elite old, eldest old

 

 

____      9. The family of an 85-year-old client expresses concern regarding the gradual decline in cognitive functioning of their family member. What mental health condition does this suggest?

a.

Depression

b.

Psychosis

c.

Dementia

d.

Delirium

 

 

____      10.         Which behavior exhibited by an older adult client should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is experiencing delirium?

a.

The client becomes confused within 24 hours after hospital admission.

b.

The client displays a cheerful attitude despite a poor prognosis.

c.

The client becomes depressed and sleeps most of the day.

d.

The client begins to use slurred speech.

 

 

____      11.         A client with Alzheimer’s disease who has been hospitalized for dehydration. In making an assessment, the nurse notes the presence of a cluster of bruises on the client’s buttocks and suspects that the client may be the victim of elder neglect and abuse. What would be the best action for the nurse to take?

a.

Call the local police.

b.

Notify the client’s physician and social worker.

c.

Confront the client’s family caregiver with the suspicions.

d.

Alert hospital security to prevent visits by the client’s caregiver.

 

 

____      12.         A nurse is caring for an older client who has just been admitted to the hospital. Upon admission the client becomes increasingly confused, agitated, and combative. What action should the nurse take to minimize relocation stress syndrome in this client?

a.

Reorient the client frequently to his or her location.

b.

Obtain a certified sitter to remain with the client.

c.

Speak to the client as little as possible to avoid overstimulation.

d.

Provide adequate sedation for all procedures to avoid fear-provoking situations.

 

 

____      13.         Which sign or symptom would lead a nurse to suspect that an older adult client is being neglected by a caregiver?

a.

Injuries noted in the “bathing suit” zone of the body

b.

Disorientation to time, place, and person

c.

Excessive weight loss

d.

Rapid heart rate

 

 

____      14.         An older client confides feeling a loss of control over life after having a mild stroke. What would be the best action the nurse could take to support this client?

a.

Explain to the client that such feelings are normal, but that he or she must have realistic expectations for rehabilitation.

b.

Encourage the client to perform as many tasks as possible and to participate in decision making.

c.

Further assess the client’s mental status for other signs of denial.

d.

Obtain an order for physical and occupational therapy.

 

 

____      15.         A nurse is caring for an older adult client who lives alone. Which economic situation presents the most serious problem for this client?

a.

Stock market fluctuations

b.

Increased provider benefits

c.

Social Security as the basis of income

d.

Costs associated with setting up a living will

 

 

____      16.         What government resource is available to assist older adults to meet the cost of health care?

a.

Preferred provider organizations

b.

Health maintenance organizations

c.

Medicare

d.

Medicaid

 

 

____      17.         Which definition of cultural competence is used by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services?

a.

The ability of health care providers and organizations to understand and respond effectively to the cultural and linguistic needs that clients bring to the health care setting

b.

The commitment made by a health care organization to provide quality care to all clients regardless of race, religion, national origin, or economic status

c.

The recognition of a body of learned beliefs, traditions, and guides for behavior that are shared among members of a particular group

d.

The setting aside of a health care professional’s own cultural beliefs to embrace or adopt those of a different cultural group

 

 

____      18.         Which activity or situation helps meet the goals of Healthy People 2010 with regard to culture?

a.

Ensuring accurate recording of a client’s race and/or ethnicity in the medical record

b.

Hiring physicians and nurses from culturally diverse backgrounds

c.

Providing magazines written in more than one language in waiting areas of clinics

d.

Translating HIV prevention guidelines into multiple literacy and language forms

 

 

____      19.         What information obtained by observation or interview is considered part of cultural assessment?

a.

The home is neat and clean.

b.

The client is underweight for his or her height.

c.

The skin tone of all family members is similar.

d.

The wife corrects the husband’s response to the question of how old his parents are.

 

 

____      20.         Which subculture has often been neglected with regard to health care issues?

a.

Clients from Middle Eastern countries

b.

Gay and lesbian clients

c.

Infants and children

d.

Older adult clients

 

 

____      21.         The client, a Jehovah’s Witness scheduled for surgery, has expressed concern that she might receive blood products, an act condemned by her religion. What is the nurse’s best response?

a.

“You should allow the health care professionals to do whatever is needed to save your life.”

b.

“If you are worried about contamination, the blood supply in this country is the safest in the world.”

c.

“I will have the hospital chaplain come and interpret the Bible for you to show you that there really is nothing unacceptable in a blood transfusion.”

d.

“Transfusions are not routine and now there are good alternatives to transfusions if you should lose an excessive amount of blood.”

 

 

____      22.         Which of the following methods of cultural assessment is most helpful for understanding a particular culture?

a.

Interview

b.

Observation

c.

Participation

d.

Visitation

 

 

____      23.         Which statement regarding substance abuse is true?

a.

Substance abuse should not be considered a public health problem because it only affects individuals rather than society as a whole.

b.

Even when a person is not “addicted” to a substance, abuse can cause physical, psychological, and social problems.

c.

Substance abuse is rarely seen among middle-class clients.

d.

Cocaine is the most commonly abused substance.

 

 

____      24.         How are stress and substance abuse interrelated?

a.

The neurotransmitters stimulated by many abused substances enhance the sense of well-being and cause the sensation of stress when the substance wears off.

b.

Chronic substance abuse leads to destruction of brain cells in the limbic area, causing an increased intensity of the stress response.

c.

Most abused substances are perceived by the body as physiologic stressors, which result in a heightened “fight-or-flight” response.

d.

As tolerance or addiction develop, more of the abused substance is needed to achieve the same pleasurable responses.

 

 

____      25.         Why is it important to identify a substance abuser in the medical-surgical acute care setting?

a.

To enable the staff to take appropriate actions to protect themselves and other clients

b.

To anticipate additional care needs necessitated by withdrawal

c.

To avoid being “taken in” by a manipulative client

d.

To inform local authorities about illegal behavior

 

 

____      26.         Which characteristic response to stimulant drugs increases their potential for abuse?

a.

They are not habit-forming.

b.

They have sedating qualities.

c.

They increase general metabolism

d.

Their use is not controlled by the DEA.

 

 

____      27.         The client has narcolepsy. The nurse should be prepared to teach the client about which drug category that has potential for abuse?

a.

Amphetamines

b.

Benzodiazepines

c.

Barbiturates

d.

Phencyclidines

 

 

____      28.         Which characteristic, action, or behavior fails to meet the criteria for the nursing diagnosis of substance abuse?

a.

The client uses the substance daily.

b.

The client’s behavior when using the substance is not socially acceptable.

c.

The client continues to use the substance even though she or he has expressed a desire to stop.

d.

The client continues to use the substance even though it causes him or her to have chronic hypertension.

 

 

____      29.         An unconscious client who has just been involved in a motor vehicle accident is brought to the emergency department. Which presenting clinical manifestation makes the nurse suspicious of an opioid overdose rather than increased intracranial pressure as a cause of the unconsciousness?

a.

Pinpoint pupils

b.

Respiratory depression

c.

Hyporeflexive deep tendon reflexes

d.

Evidence that the client has vomited

 

 

____      30.         The client smokes three packs of cigarettes per day. The nurse should teach this client about his or her increased risk for which chronic health problem as a result of tobacco abuse?

a.

Chronic pancreatitis

b.

Rheumatoid arthritis

c.

Cardiovascular disease

d.

Type 2 diabetes mellitus

 

 

____      31.         The nurse suspects that the client is a substance abuser. Which clinical manifestation causes the nurse to suspect cocaine abuse rather barbiturates?

a.

Shallow respirations

b.

Pupillary constriction

c.

Tachycardia

d.

Flushing

 

 

____      32.         Which statement or information obtained from a client during assessment for alcohol abuse alerts the nurse to the possibility of alcohol addiction?

a.

The client says he or she drinks alcohol to feel less stressed and have a good time.

b.

The client has been arrested once for driving under the influence of alcohol.

c.

The client uses alcohol to stop his or her hands from shaking.

d.

The client drinks alcohol daily.

 

 

____      33.         Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a woman who abuses anabolic steroids?

a.

Risk for Injury related to decreased muscle coordination

b.

Hypothermia related to decreased metabolic rate

c.

Chronic Confusion related to sodium and water retention

d.

Disturbed Body Image related to presence of facial hair

 

 

____      34.         Which problem or manifestation in a 125-pound, 40-year-old woman, 1-day postoperative for a total abdominal hysterectomy, leads the nurse to suspect possible substance abuse?

a.

She has vomited nine times during the first 24 hours after surgery.

b.

Morphine 15 mg (subcutaneous) has failed to relieve her pain.

c.

She has been unable to void after removal of the Foley.

d.

Her wound drainage is greater than expected.

 

 

____      35.         The client has been transferred to the medical-surgical unit from the emergency department. His admitting diagnosis is “barbiturate overdose.” What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

a.

Performing neurologic checks every 4 hours

b.

Providing emotional support

c.

Restricting visitors to immediate family

d.

Taking vital signs every 4 hours

 

 

____      36.         Which intervention is compatible with the goals for end-of-life care?

a.

Administering a flu shot

b.

Preventing the client with COPD from smoking

c.

Performing passive range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures

d.

Permitting the client with diabetes mellitus to have a serving of ice cream

 

 

____      37.         Which of the following represents a major philosophy of the hospice concept?

a.

Improving the quality of life for a client with a terminal illness

b.

Assisting the family of a terminally ill client to grieve more efficiently

c.

Ensuring that a terminally ill client is never alone

d.

Removing the stigma of death

 

 

____      38.         Which clinical manifestation alerts the nurse to the fact that the terminally ill client is approaching death?

a.

The client calls one son by the other son’s name.

b.

The client’s extremities are cold and mottled.

c.

The client asks to see a minister.

d.

The client’s pain is increasing.

 

 

____      39.         Which action constitutes active euthanasia?

a.

Increasing opioid-based pain medication to achieve adequate pain relief

b.

Discontinuing treatment of bacterial pneumonia with antibiotics

c.

Allowing only oral fluids for a confused client

d.

Limiting wound care to only once daily

 

 

____      40.         When should abnormal symptoms in a dying client be treated?

a.

When they are serious and may lead to death

b.

When they affect the client’s rest or comfort

c.

When they do not interfere with religious beliefs

d.

When they disturb the family

 

 

____      41.         The spouse of a person remaining at home during a terminal illness is concerned because the dying client does not want to eat. What is the nurse’s best response?

a.

“If he says he is not hungry, let him know that food is available when he wants it but don’t insist that he eat.”

b.

“A feeding tube can be placed in the nose to provide important nutrients.”

c.

“Force him to eat even if he doesn’t feel hungry, or he will die sooner.”

d.

“He is getting all the nutrients he needs from his IV.”

 

 

____      42.         Family members of a client with a terminal illness tell a nurse that the client keeps asking if she is dying. What is the nurse’s best response?

a.

“Whenever the client asks about dying, change the subject.”

b.

“Tell the client the truth in as gentle a way as possible.”

c.

“Tell the client that she will get better eventually.”

d.

“Ask the client if she is afraid to die.”

 

 

____      43.         In providing palliative care to a client with a terminal illness, under which condition should the nurse consider insertion of an indwelling urine catheter?

a.

When the client is taking medications affecting output

b.

When the client’s output drops below 500 mL/day

c.

When the client would be more comfortable

d.

When the client is incontinent

 

 

____      44.         The dying client and family have been approached by their physician to consider a move to a hospice-like facility for palliative care. The family members tell the nurse they are afraid that their loved one will receive only custodial care because therapy for a cure is no longer being pursued. What is the nurse’s best response?

a.

“The goal of palliative care is to provide the greatest degree of comfort possible and help the dying person enjoy whatever time is left.”

b.

“Palliative care will release you from the burden of having to care for someone in the home; it does not mean that curative treatment will stop.”

c.

“A palliative care facility is like a nursing home, which costs less than a hospital because less care is being provided.”

d.

“Your loved one is unaware of his surroundings and will not notice the difference between home and a palliative care facility.”

 

 

____      45.         Which instruction should be given to the family regarding noise in the room when they are spending time with a dying family member?

a.

“Remember that she can’t hear you.”

b.

“Try to get her to talk or respond to you.”

c.

“Avoid making any noise when you are with her.”

d.

“Talk as softly to her as you would if you knew she could hear you.”

 

 

____      46.         The client who is near death is having severe dyspnea. What is the best management strategy for this problem?

a.

Teach the family how to perform nasotracheal or oral-tracheal suctioning.

b.

Request that the physician order administration of morphine sulfate.

c.

Document the finding as the only action.

d.

Initiate endotracheal intubation and ventilator.

 

 

____      47.         The client tells the nurse that even though it has been 4 months since her sister’s death from a ruptured aneurysm, the client finds herself crying uncontrollably several times a week. The client is afraid she is “losing her mind.” What is the nurse’s best response?

a.

“Most people get on with their lives within a few months. You should see a grief counselor.”

b.

“Whenever you start to cry, distract yourself from thoughts of your sister and try to sing.”

c.

“You should try not to cry. I’m sure your sister is in a better place now.”

d.

“Your feelings are completely normal and may continue for a long time.”

 

 

____      48.         The client is terminally ill and has signed an advance directive. In accordance with the client’s wishes, the physician has written a “do not resuscitate” (DNR) order. The family tells the nurse that they expect cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to be performed if their mother stops breathing. While they are talking, the client suddenly stops breathing. What should the nurse do?

a.

Respect the wishes of the family

b.

Have the family leave the room immediately

c.

Notify the physician immediately.

d.

Follow the DNR order.

 

 

____      49.         The nurse is caring for a client with Hodgkin’s disease who will be receiving radiation therapy. The nurse recognizes that, as a result of the radiation therapy, the client is MOST likely to experience:

a.

High fever

c.

Face and neck edema

b.

Nausea

d.

Night sweats

 

 

____      50.         When managing a client’s pain, which of the following statements BEST describes the ethical considerations of the nurse?

a.

Nurses should not prejudge a client’s pain using their own values

c.

Cultural sensitivity is fundamental to pain management

b.

The client’s self-report is the most important consideration

d.

Clients have the right to have their pain relieved

 

 

____      51.         Which intervention is compatible with the goals of end-of-life care?

a.

Limiting visitors to reduce the risk for infection.

b.

Removing a Foley catheter to promote client comfort.

c.

Providing Ensure between meals to promote weight gain.

d.

Encouraging the client with congestive heart failure to avoid foods high in sodium.

 

 

____      52.         Which of the following represents a major philosophy of the hospice concept?

a.

Increasing the survival time for clients with a terminal illness.

b.

Relieving families from the burden of custodial care.

c.

Ensuring death with dignity for a terminally ill client.

d.

Preventing the complications of prolonged bedrest.

 

 

____      53.         The family members of a dying client are distressed by the client talking to his brother, who died several years earlier, as if the brother were present in the room with the client. What is your best response?

a.

“Ignore any references to the dead brother and redirect the conversation.”

b.

“Reinforce that his brother died years ago and cannot possibly be present now.”

c.

“Tell the client that he is hallucinating because of the medication.”

d.

“Acknowledge that the client sees his brother.”

 

 

____      54.         Why is a pillow placed under the client’s head after death? To:

a.

preserve the eyes for organ donation.

c.

prevent facial discoloration.

b.

make insertion of dentures easier.

d.

make the family feel better.

 

 

____      55.         Which action constitutes active euthanasia?

a.

Discontinuing cancer chemotherapy.

c.

Removing a Foley catheter.

b.

Discontinuing mechanical ventilation.

d.

Requesting a DNR order.

 

 

____      56.         Read the communication dialogue and select the appropriate technique from the choices provided. Patient-“The head man expects some cash today.” Nurse-“I am not sure what you mean. Who is the head man?”

a.

informing

c.

clarification

b.

theme identification

d.

sharing perception

 

 

____      57.         Read the communication dialogue and select the appropriate technique from the choices provided. Patient-“My mother hates me.” Nurse-“Tell me about a time when you thought your mother hated you.”

a.

focusing

c.

reflection

b.

broad opening

d.

suggesting

 

 

____      58.         Read the communication dialogue and select the appropriate technique from the choices provided. Patient-“I need to change my appointment time again” (Said with an expression of dread). Nurse-“I am wondering from your expression if it is difficult for you to ask.”

a.

clarification

c.

theme identification

b.

sharing perception

d.

reflection

 

 

____      59.         Read the communication dialogue and select the appropriate technique from the choices provided.

Patient-“I don’t know what to do. My cat is home and no one is there to feed it.”

Nurse-“Have you thought about asking a friend to feed your cat?”

a.

restating

c.

informing

b.

suggesting

d.

restating

 

 

____      60.         Read the communication dialogue and select the appropriate technique from the choices provided.

Patient-“I don’t know where to start.”

Nurse-“Tell me about what has been on your mind recently.”

a.

broad opening

c.

sharing perception

b.

reflection

d.

suggesting

 

 

____      61.         Read the communication dialogue and select the appropriate technique from the choices provided.

Patient-“Since my wife left me nothing matters.”

Nurse-“You have spoken so often of feeling deserted by your wife. It seems this change has left you feeling empty.”

a.

clarification

c.

informing

b.

focusing

d.

theme identification

 

 

____      62.         Read the communication dialogue and select the appropriate technique from the choices provided.

Patient-“I just want to scream when my husband spends all his time at the computer.” Nurse-“You are feeling very frustrated about your husband spending time at the computer.”

a.

focusing

c.

reflection

b.

restating

d.

broad opening

 

 

____      63.         Read the communication dialogue and select the appropriate technique from the choices provided.

Patient-“I am going to a restaurant on my pass.”

Nurse-“Let’s review the special diet required while you are taking this antidepressant.”

a.

theme identification

c.

clarification

b.

informing

d.

suggesting

 

 

____      64.         Read the communication dialogue and select the appropriate technique from the choices provided.

Patient-“After my son left home at fourteen, my life went downhill.”

Nurse-“You say your life is going downhill since your son left?”

a.

restating

c.

broad opening

b.

sharing perception

d.

focusing

 

 

____      65.         What is the most important priority in providing nursing care for a patient with a terminal illness?

a.

Physical comfort.

c.

Prevention of pressure sores.

b.

Medications to reduce pain.

d.

Encouraging unlimited visits from family members.

 

 

____      66.         A client in the terminal stages of AIDS is despondent upon hearing that a close friend, who also had AIDS, has just died. The client begins to cry and says to the nurse, “What’s the use of hanging on when there is no hope? I’ll die soon too.” What is the best response by the nurse?

a.

A cure for AIDS is bound to be discovered soon; don’t give up yet.”

b.

“No one knows how long you’ll have to live. Make the most of the time you have left.”

c.

“Let’s talk about pleasant memories.”

d.

“Would you like to talk?”

 

 

____      67.         A woman’s refusal to see a physician about a lump in her breast can be interpreted by the nurse as:

a.

Rationalization

c.

Sublimation

b.

Projection

d.

Denial

 

 

____      68.         What is an essential component of a therapeutic nurse-client relationship?

a.

Relabeling

c.

Empathy

b.

Confrontation

d.

Sympathy

 

 

____      69.         The nurse working with clients from many different cultures recognizes that it is a PRIORITY to:

a.

Refer to experts from those countries

c.

Recognize personal attitudes and biases

b.

Speak another language

d.

Learn about all the cultures

 

 

____      70.         The nurse is instructing a client with moderate persistent asthma on the proper method for using MDI’s (multi-dose inhalers). Which medication should be administered FIRST?

a.

Steroid

c.

Anticholinergic

b.

Beta agonist

d.

Mast cell stabilizer

 

 

____      71.         A new nurse manager is responsible for interviewing applicants for a staff nurse position. Which of the following interview strategies is the BEST?

a.

Ask personal information of each applicant to assure meeting of job demands

b.

Develop an interview guide for consistency in interviewing each candidate

c.

Vary the interview style for each candidate to learn different techniques

d.

Use simple questions requiring “yes” and “no” answers to gain definitive information

 

 

____      72.         The nurse manager informs the nursing staff at morning report that the clinical nurse specialist will be conducting a research study on staff attitudes toward client care. All staff are invited to participate in the study if they wish. This affirms the ethical principle of:

a.

Anonymity

c.

Autonomy

b.

Beneficence

d.

Justice

 

 

____      73.         Which of the following BEST describes the goal of total quality management or continuous quality improvement in a health care setting?

a.

Conducting chart audits to find common errors

b.

Creating a flow chart to organize daily tasks

c.

Observing reactive service and product problem solving

d.

Improving processes in a proactive, preventive mode

 

 

____      74.         The nurse is planning care for an 8 year-old child. Which of the following should be included in the plan of care?

a.

Provide frequent reassurance and cuddling

b.

Talk with the child and allow him to express his opinions

c.

Encourage child to engage in activities in the playroom

d.

Promote independence in activities of daily living

 

 

____      75.         The nurse is teaching parents of a 7 month-old about adding table foods. Which of the following is an APPROPRIATE finger food?

a.

Sliced bananas

c.

Whole grapes

b.

Popcorn

d.

Hot dog pieces

 

 

____      76.         The client with a terminal illness is grimacing and giving other nonverbal indications of pain within an hour and a half of receiving 80 mg of morphine subcutaneously for pain. What is your best action as the home care nurse?

a.

Contact the physician immediately about increasing the dose and frequency of pain medication.

b.

Hold the next dose of medication to reduce the chances the client will become addicted.

c.

Avoid administering the next dose of pain medication early to reduce the risk for respiratory depression.

d.

Document the observation and reassess the client’s need for pain control if the problem persists.

 

 

____      77.         Which of the following best describes the purposes of ambulatory health care delivery?

a.

Long-term skilled care, emergency care, health promotion

b.

Health promotion, managed care, selected surgery

c.

Health protection, short-term treatment, health promotion

d.

Short-term treatment, long-term treatment, health protection

 

 

____      78.         What factor has influenced the growth and acceptance of home care in the United States?

a.

The lower cost of home care as compared to institutional care

b.

A cultural shift away from traditional nursing home care

c.

The increasing numbers of terminally ill individuals

d.

The recent nursing staff shortages

 

 

____      79.         Which of the following activities demonstrates a major role of the nurse in an ambulatory care setting?

a.

Drawing blood for preoperative testing

b.

Teaching the client how to change the dressing on an incisional biopsy site

c.

Obtaining the client’s signature on the surgical consent form before surgery

d.

Performing a physical examination and taking the health history of a new client

 

 

____      80.         In what way does a nursing community center differ from a physician’s office practice setting?

a.

Clients at nursing community centers are not eligible to receive care elsewhere.

b.

Physicians’ offices are usually associated with large university medical centers.

c.

The care provided is limited to interventions for nursing diagnoses.

d.

The primary health care providers are advanced practice nurses.

 

 

____      81.         Which of the following activities is outside of the scope or role of the home care nurse?

a.

Providing direct nursing care to an ill client in the home

b.

Assessing the community for environmental hazards and health risks

c.

Teaching family members how to monitor the intravenous infusion pump

d.

Consulting with a dietician regarding the nutritional needs of a client with a large wound

 

 

____      82.         Which of the interventions performed by licensed nurses in the home would be reimbursed by Medicare for an eligible home care client?

a.

Administration of intravenous medication

b.

Bathing and positioning a paraplegic client

c.

Preparing a meal for a client requiring a special diet

d.

Evaluating the client’s home setting before discharge

 

 

____      83.         In which of the following settings would the nurse be expected to minimally implement the supervisor role of the nurse?

a.

Subacute care setting

b.

Home care setting

c.

Skilled nursing facility

d.

Assisted living facility

 

 

____      84.         Which of the following nursing home facilities offers the residents a range of services from independent living to skilled nursing care?

a.

Skilled nursing facilities

b.

Chronic care facilities

c.

Residential facilities

d.

Nursing facilities

 

 

____      85.         Which client is likely to require transitional subacute care before being discharged home?

a.

The client with stable human immunodeficiency virus infection

b.

The client with a progressive neurologic disease

c.

The client requiring deep wound management

d.

The client who is ventilator dependent

 

 

____      86.         Which statement best summarizes the purpose of managed health care?

a.

To provide high-tech care in the home setting

b.

To standardize and control health care costs

c.

To provide health care on a fee-for-service basis

d.

To promote the use of nurse practitioners as primary health care providers

 

 

____      87.         Which statement best describes a fee-for-service means of health care reimbursement?

a.

Health care providers and hospitals are reimbursed based upon their fees.

b.

Health care providers and hospitals receive a uniform amount of money.

c.

Health care providers and hospitals are reimbursed though client payments only.

d.

Health care providers and hospitals are reimbursed by insurance companies based upon client outcomes.

 

 

____      88.         Other than educational preparation, what is the main difference between health care provided by a nurse practitioner and that provided by a physician?

a.

Federal law permits only physicians to prescribe medications.

b.

Nurse practitioners are limited to providing interventions centered on nursing diagnoses.

c.

Nurse practitioners provide care from a wellness model, and physicians more often focus on illness care.

d.

There is no difference in scope, interventions, responsibility, and liability in the health care provided by nurse practitioners and physicians.

 

 

____      89.         Which statement best describes the process of case management?

a.

The coordination of care services to at-risk populations

b.

A collaborative process to promote quality and cost-effective care

c.

The implementation of care to acutely ill, underserved populations

d.

A cost-effective model of care delivery that meets the needs of specially defined groups

 

 

____      90.         Which of the following clients would be best served by a case manager?

a.

70-year-old woman with chronic cystitis

b.

55-year-old man with moderate hypertension

c.

65-year-old woman with chronic congestive heart failure and diabetes mellitus

d.

28-year-old man with a fractured ankle from a sports injury and seasonal allergies to molds and pollens

 

 

____      91.         Which of the following statements made by a health care professional regarding clinical pathways indicates a lack of understanding about their purpose?

a.

“The clinical pathways are useful in determining how effective specific treatment plans are.”

b.

“Although clinical pathways map out a specific plan of care, they can be modified for variances in client outcomes.”

c.

“Without the implementation of clinical pathways, our agency could not be accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organizations.”

d.

“Involvement of multiple disciplines in the development of clinical pathways allows for a comprehensive plan to achieve the best outcomes for an individual client.”

 

 

____      92.         Which of the following certifications are used as designations for case managers?

a.

CCM, CIS, CCRN

b.

CNM, A-CCC, CLCP

c.

CCM, A-CCC, CAM

d.

CCM, CDMS, MAC

 

 

____      93.         Which activity, if performed on a regular basis among relatives or friends in a household, has the greatest potential to spread HIV?

a.

Sharing a safety razor with an HIV-positive person

b.

Using the same toilet as an HIV-positive person

c.

Sharing eating utensils with an HIV-positive person

d.

Kissing an HIV-positive person on the mouth

 

 

____      94.         The client who is HIV positive has a bout of Pneumocystis pneumonia and is prescribed to take a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim (Bactrim). Which precaution is most important for the nurse to stress to this client?

a.

“If you miss one dose, take two tablets at the next scheduled dose.”

b.

“Drink at least 4 liters of fluid/day while taking this medication.”

c.

“Do not take this medication within 4 hours of taking any other medication.”

d.

“Avoid direct sunlight or use a sunscreen with a minimum SPF of 45 during and for 2 weeks following drug therapy.”

 

 

____      95.         Which precaution is most important for the nurse to teach the client with HIV disease who is prescribed to start taking enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)?

a.

“Rotate the injection site.”

b.

“Take your temperature twice daily.”

c.

“Do not rub or massage the injection site.”

d.

“Report any change in urine color to your health care provider.”

 

 

____      96.         The client with AIDS has chronic diarrhea. Which dietary change should the nurse suggest for this client?

a.

“Avoid fatty foods.”

b.

“Increase your intake of fiber.”

c.

“Take an antacid 30 minutes before each meal.”

d.

“Restrict your intake of fluids to 1 liter per day.”

 

 

____      97.         Which statement made by a client who has HIV disease and is taking a “cocktail” consisting of protease inhibitors, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, and non-nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors indicates the need for clarification regarding the management of this condition?

a.

“Using three drugs at the same time enhances suppression of viral replication.”

b.

“There is no problem using complementary therapies along with the protease inhibitors.”

c.

“Because the protease inhibitors kill the virus, I do not need to worry about transmitting the virus.”

d.

“If the virus becomes resistant to this cocktail, another combination of drugs may be required to reduce my viral load.”

 

 

____      98.         The client who has just been diagnosed as HIV-positive asks if he poses a health hazard to his co-workers in the secretarial pool. What is the nurse’s best response?

a.

“The only time you could make someone else sick is when you have Pneumocystis pneumonia.”

b.

“As long as you are taking your antiviral medications, you cannot transmit the virus to your co-workers.”

c.

“Unless your blood or other body fluids comes into contact with your co-workers, you are not a health risk to them.”

d.

“You should inform your co-workers of your HIV status so that they can take proper precautions to reduce their risk.”

 

 

____      99.         With which sexually transmitted disease should the nurse teach the client about an increased risk for development of cancer in the genital region?

a.

Syphilis

b.

Chancroid

c.

Cytomegalovirus

d.

Human papillomavirus

 

 

____      100.       The client has just been diagnosed with a recurrence of genital herpes simplex. She asks how this is possible, because she has not had sex since she was diagnosed and treated 1 year ago. What is the nurse’s best response?

a.

“Sometimes one course of therapy is not enough to eradicate the disease.”

b.

“The disease can be controlled but is never cured, and outbreaks are common.”

c.

“Did you take the medication exactly the way it was prescribed for you?”

d.

“If you had more than one sex partner in your life, you may have had more than one strain of the disease.”

 

 

____      101.       Which statement made by the client about condom use indicates a need for clarification?

a.

“I will use a new condom each time I have intercourse.”

b.

“I will use an oil-based lubricant whenever I have intercourse.”

c.

“I will always use a latex condom rather than a natural membrane condom.”

d.

“When intercourse is over, I will keep the condom on my penis until it is out of the vagina.”

 

 

____      102.       The client diagnosed with chancroid is prescribed to take erythromycin orally. Which statement made by the client indicates correct understanding of the antibiotic regimen?

a.

“If my temperature is normal for 3 days in a row, the infection is gone, and I can stop taking my medicine.”

b.

“One dose of this medication is enough to stop the infection and make me noninfectious.”

c.

“Even if I feel completely well, I should take the medication until it is gone.”

d.

“When my sores have healed, I will no longer need to take the antibiotics.”

 

 

____      103.       The client is a 24-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with a human papillomavirus infection. She is very angry at her ex-boyfriend, who has been her only sexual contact. She is crying and says she isn’t going to tell him that he is infected. What is the nurse’s best response?

a.

“You do not have to tell him because this is not a reportable disease in this state.”

b.

“Because there is no cure for this disease, telling him would be of no benefit to him or to you.”

c.

“Even though you are angry, he should be told so that he can take precautions to prevent the spread of infection.”

d.

“You should tell him so that he can feel as guilty and miserable as you do now, knowing that you have this disease.”

 

 

____      104.       Why are women more likely to have “silent” infections of sexually transmitted disease than men?

a.

Women are less susceptible to sexually transmitted diseases.

b.

Many of the places where lesions would appear in women are not readily visible.

c.

The longer urethra of a man provides more opportunity for microorganisms to multiply.

d.

The clinical manifestations of infection in women are more likely to be systemic and vague rather than local.

 

 

____      105.       Which client is at greater risk for development of an ectopic pregnancy as a result of a sexually transmitted disease?

a.

The client with chlamydia

b.

The client with genital herpes

c.

The client with the human papillomavirus

d.

The client with pelvic inflammatory disease

 

 

____      106.       Which statement made by the client who has had a sexually transmitted disease indicates a need for clarification regarding risk factors and prevention strategies?

a.

“I always urinate immediately after intercourse.”

b.

“I douche daily, even when I have not had intercourse.”

c.

“I use a condom for casual sex, even though I am on the pill.”

d.

“When I have sex twice in the same evening, I add more spermicidal jelly rather than removing my diaphragm.”

 

 

____      107.       A nurse in an ambulatory care clinic is performing an admission assessment for an African-American client scheduled for a cataract removal with an intraocular lens implant. Which of the following questions would be inappropriate for the nurse to ask on an initial assessment?

a.

“Do you have any difficulty breathing?”

b.

“Do you have a close family relationship?”

c.

“Do you ever experience chest pain?”

d.

“Do you frequently have episodes of headache?”

 

 

____      108.       A community health nurse has volunteered to assist in providing health care instruction to an American Indian community group. The nurse plans instruction based on the common practices and rituals of this group, knowing that which of the following is not a common characteristics associated with ethnic group?

a.

Corn is an important component of the diet.

b.

Alcohol use is minimal.

c.

Fried bread and mutton are prepared in lard.

d.

Vitamin D deficiency is a concern.

 

 

____      109.       A home health nurse is visiting a client who does not speak English. The nurse attempts to obtain a translator to assist in communication but it unsuccessful in doing so. Which communication technique will not overcome the language barrier during the visit with the client?

a.

Communicating by writing medical terms

b.

Using simple words and avoiding medical terms

c.

Using simple words with simple actions while verbalizing them

d.

Discussing one topic at a time

 

 

Completion

Complete each statement.

 

              110.       _________________________ is an area of study and practice that focuses on the care, health, and illness patterns of individuals with similarities and differences in their cultural beliefs, values, and practice.

 

              111.       Typically, a client who has a life expectancy of less than ____________________ months should be referred to hospice.

 

Other

 

              112.       Clients with which of the following factors are more likely to experience acute confusion or delirium? (Select all that apply.)

A. Alcoholism

B. Chronic pain

C. Acute infection

D. Major loss

E. Multi-infarct cerebrovascular disease

F.  Change in drug regimen

 

              113.       Mrs. Jones, 85, has just been admitted to a skilled nursing facility following surgery for a fractured hip. Select the interventions most likely to help her adjust to her new surroundings. (Select all that apply.)

A. Make sure that she has her hearing aid and glasses.

B. Offer her the anxiolytic that her physician has prescribed.

C. Encourage her family to bring in her favorite pictures.

D. Ask her where she wants the room furnishings placed.

E. Encourage her to eat meals in her room.

F.  Invite her to group activities.

 

              114.       Which assessment data gathered during the admission of an older client should alert the nurse to an increased risk for falls? (Select all that apply.)

A. Visual impairment

B. Use of a cane while walking

C. Hypertension

D. Obesity

E. Difficulty arising from a sitting position

F.  Being male

 

              115.       Which of the following are not indicators of alcohol abuse? (Select all that apply.)

A. Craves alcohol

B. Drinks one 12-oz beer each day

C. Fails to fix meals at home

D. Frequent sick days at work

E. Grades at school drop

F.  Loss of control

G. Physical dependence

 

              116.       An older woman has just had surgery to repair a fractured hip. Identify the care settings, ordering from least to most client autonomy, that the woman may encounter.

A.  Transitional care unit (TCU)

B.  Skilled nursing facility (SNF)

C.  Inpatient orthopedic unit

D.  Independent living in her own home

E.   Assisted-living facility (ALF)

 

              117.       A client requiring intermittent infusion therapy for cancer is usually treated in which of the following care settings? (Select all that apply.)

A.  Home

B.  Skilled nursing facility (SNF)

C.  Inpatient unit

D.  Outpatient clinic

E.   Infusion center

 

              118.       Which characteristics distinguish nursing care in the home from nursing care in an inpatient setting? (Select all that apply.)

A.  An in-depth knowledge of care requirements across the life span is essential.

B.  More emphasis is given to the role of nurse as teacher.

C.  Direct supervision of unlicensed assistive personnel is continuous.

D.  The client’s care environment is controlled by nursing personnel.

E.   The focus is on promoting self-care and independence.

 

              119.       Compared to a nursing care plan, a clinical pathway (select all that apply)

A.  is multidisciplinary.

B.  follows the client at specified time intervals.

C.  is used for routine, noncomplex client diagnoses.

D.  uses variance to examine the sequencing of care.

E.   uses variance data as part of continuous quality improvement (CQI).

F.   focuses on nursing goals.

 

              120.       Which characteristics distinguish the role of case manager? The ability to (select all that apply)

A.  gather and organize data about a client from client records and the client.

B.  plan care for a client with emphasis on client satisfaction.

C.  coordinate care among a variety of health care professionals and settings.

D.  promote the client’s interests while negotiating necessary health care.

E.   advocate for the client and family throughout the continuum of care.

F.   utilize resources for appropriate client health care services.


 

 

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