1

The most spread diseases in children

Tests

 

1.     Which of the methods of nHelicobacter pylori infection diagnostic belong to non-invasive?

A.    urease test

B.    De-nol-test

C.    study of nucleic acids

D.    biopsy of the gastric or nduodenum mucosa

E.     * “Aerotest”

2.     What determines the nduration of bed rest in the treatment of chronic gastroduodenitis children?

A.    * the severity of pain    

B.    quantity of secretion

C.    age of the child

D.    endoscopic changes

E.     severity of dyspeptic nmanifestations

3.     Which of the drug nbelongs to the H2- blockers?

A.    maalox

B.    vikalin

C.    methacine

D.    gastropharm

E.     * cimetidine

4.     What is function of H2- blockers? n

A.    increase the amount of acid produced by the nstomach.

B.    * reduce the amount of acid produced nby the stomach.

C.    stabilize the amount of acid produced by the nstomach.

D.    increase the amount of enzymes

E.     protect mucous membranes

5.     What is the daily dose nof cimetidine used in the treatment of chronic gastroduodenitis children?

A.    1 mg / kg

B.    3 mg / kg

C.    5 mg / kg

D.    20 mg / kg

E.     * 10 mg / kg

6.     What kind of drugs nrefers to reparants?

A.    panzynorm

B.    renegast

C.    bellaspon

D.    ranitidine

E.     * gastropharm

7.     What physiotherapy nprocedure can be applied to children with chronic gastroduodenitis with the nexpressed pain syndrome?

A.    ozokerite applications

B.    xylitol probing

C.    diathermy

D.    mud

E.     * electrophoresis of nnovocaine

8.     Which of the following ndrugs are attributed to H. pylori?

A.    maalox

B.    gastropharm

C.    cimetidine

D.    penicillin

E.     * amoxacilline

9.     What is the leading nsymptom in the 1st stage ulcer?

A.    vomiting

B.    belching

C.    heartburn

D.    local muscle tension

E.     * pain

10.  What characteristic of ndyspeptic manifestations at the healing stage of ulcer?

A.    expressed

B.    nausea

C.    acid regurgitation

D.    heartburn

E.     * absent

11.  What feature of the nulcer disease course is typical for children?

A.    mild

B.    latent course

C.    sluggish course

D.    chronic course

E.     * as a rule severe

12.  What are peculiarities nof the peptic ulcer, mild course?

A.    term healing of ulcers nup to 2 weeks, with remission up to 6 months

B.    term healing of ulcers nup to 2 months with remission less than 1 year

C.    term healing of ulcers 1 nmonth, relapse up to 2 times a year

D.    term healing of ulcers nup to 2 months, relapse once a year

E.     * term healing of ulcers nup to 1 month with remission for over a year

13.  What are peculiarities nof the peptic ulcer, moderate course?

A.    term healing of ulcers nup to 1 month with remission for over a year

B.    term healing of ulcers nup to 2 weeks, with remission up to 6 months

C.    term healing of ulcers 1 nmonth, relapse up to 2 times a year

D.    term healing of ulcers nup to 2 months, relapse once a year

E.     * term healing of ulcers nup to 2 months with remission less than 1 year

14.  What are peculiarities nof the peptic ulcer, severe course?

A.    term healing of ulcers nup to 1 month with remission for over a year

B.    term healing of ulcers nup to 2 weeks, with remission up to 6 months

C.    term healing of ulcers nup to 2 months with remission less than 1 year

D.    term healing of ulcers nup to 2 months, relapse once a year

E.     * term healing of ulcers n1 month, relapse up to 2 times a year

15.  What is the drug of nchoice in Helisobaster pylori invasion?

A.    penicillin

B.    gentamicin

C.    cefazolin

D.    erythromycin

E.     * metronidazole

16.  What is  the most frequent complication of peptic nulcer in children?

A.    stenosis of pylorus

B.    penetration

C.    perforation

D.    peryvistseritis

E.     * bleeding

17.  Name radiological signs nof gastric ulcers:

A.    radial convergence of nthe of the stomach walls

B.    thickening of the walls

C.    thickening of the nmucosal folds

D.    smoothed mucous folds

E.     * “niche” with ninflammatory shaft

18.  What is the duration of npeptic ulcer triple or quadro therapy in children?

A.    5 – 7 days

B.    10 – 14 days

C.    14 – 21 days

D.    21 – 30 days

E.     * 7 – 10 days

19.  Which drug is a reparant nof gastric mucosa in duodenal ulcer?

A.    cimetidine

B.    renegast

C.    smectic

D.    motilium

E.     * spirulina

20.  What is advisable to nappoint in gastrointestinal dysmotility?

A.    no-spa

B.    smectic

C.    gastropharm

D.    almagel

E.     * motilium

21.  When the cytoprotectors nare given to children with peptic ulcer?

A.    from the beginning of ntreatment

B.    in case of hyperacidity

C.    in the process of ulcers nhealing

D.    in remission

E.     * after antihelicobacter ntherapy

22.  Name forms of chronic nhepatitis in children

A.    persistent, active, nautoimmune

B.    medical, autoimmune, nalcoholic

C.    cryptogenic, viral, ntoxic

D.    cryptogenic, autoimmune, ntoxic, alcoholic

E.     * viral, autoimmune, ndrug-induced, toxic

23.  Name phases of chronic nhepatitis activity

A.    active (minimal, nmoderate, severe)

B.    active (mild, moderate, nsevere), inactive

C.    active, incomplete nclinical and laboratory remission, complete clinical and laboratory nremission 

D.    incomplete clinical and nlaboratory remission, complete clinical and laboratory remission 

E.     * active (minimal, nmoderate, severe), inactive

24.  What tells us about the nminimal activity of chronic hepatitis?

A.    normal ALT

B.    ALT 5 times higher thanormal

C.    ALT 5-10 times higher nthaormal

D.    ALT levels above the nnorm more than 10 times

E.     * ALT 3 times higher thanormal

25.  Pain in chronic nhepatitis is manifested as:

A.    epigastric fasting pain

B.    nocturnal epigastric npain

C.    belting pain 1-2 hours nafter meal

D.    pain in the left nhypochondrium during physical activity

E.     * pain in the right nhypochondrium during physical activity

26.  What are the maiclinical manifestations of cholestasis syndrome?

A.    jaundice, nhepatosplenomegaly

B.    pallor, jaundice, nhepatosplenomegaly

C.    abdominal pain, jaundice n

D.    pallor, skin itching

E.     * jaundice, skin itching

27.  Mesenchymal-inflammatory nsyndrome is characterized by:

A.    increased AST, ALT

B.    prothrombin reduction

C.    increased alkaline nphosphatase

D.    raised indirect nbilirubin

E.     * dysproteinemia

28.  Viferon belongs to:

A.    Glucocorticoids

B.    Antibiotics

C.    Antihystamines

D.    Antiinflammatory

E.     * Interferon

29.  What is the maidirection of autoimmune hepatitis treatment?

A.    antiviral therapy

B.    antibacterial therapy

C.    immunostimulatory ntherapy

D.    antiinflammatory therapy

E.     * immunosuppressive ntherapy

30.  Name the nimmunosuppressive therapy of chronic hepatitis B.

A.    Indomethacin

B.    Penicillin

C.    Cholenzym

D.    Essenciale

E.     * Azathioprine

31.  What are the signs of nhypotonic biliary dyskinesia in duodenal probing?

A.    Increased portion A

B.    Increased portion C

C.    Decreased portion B

D.    Decreased portion C

E.     * Increased portion B

32.  What are the signs of nhypertonic biliary dyskinesia in duodenal probing?

A.    Increased portion A

B.    Increased portion B

C.    Increased portion C

D.    Decreased portion C

E.     * Decreased portion B

33.  What are the signs of nhypotonic biliary dyskinesia in sonogram (USE)?

A.    Increased liver

B.    Contracted gallbladder

C.    Reduced liver

D.    Normal gallbladder

E.     * Dilated gallbladder

34.  What are the signs of nhypertonic biliary dyskinesia in sonogram (USE)?

A.    Increased liver

B.    Reduced liver

C.    Dilated gallbladder

D.    Normal gallbladder

E.     * Contracted gallbladder

35.  What is the treatment of nhypotonic biliary dyskinesia?

A.    Analgesics

B.    Antispasmodic

C.    Hepatoprotectors

D.    Sedative

E.     * Choleretics and ncholekinetics

36.  What is the nphysiotherapy of hypotonic forms of biliary dyskinesia?

A.    СаСІ2 electrophoresis

B.    Inductothermy

C.    Ozokerite applications

D.    Microwaves therapy

E.     * MgSO4 electrophoresis

37.  What is used in the ntreatment of hypertonic biliary dyskinesia?

A.    Analgesics

B.    Antibiotics

C.    Hepatoprotectors

D.    Cholekynetics

E.     * Antispasmodic and nsedatives

38.  What is the nphysiotherapy of hypertonic forms of biliary dyskinesia?

A.    MgSO4 electrophoresis

B.    proserin electrophoresis n

C.    Electrical stimulatioof the phrenic nerve

D.    Microwaves therapy

E.     * Inductothermy

39.  What are the leading nclinical syndromes in chronic cholecystocholangitis?

A.    Pain, dysuria

B.    Toxic, hemorrhagic

C.    Dyspeptic, dysuria

D.    Dyspeptic, hemorrhagic

E.     * Pain, dyspeptic

40.  The presence of vascular nasterisks is characteristic for:

A.    Gastritis

B.    Duodenitis

C.    Gastroenterocolitis

D.    Pancreatitis

E.     * Biliary dyskinesia

41.  What determines the paicharacter in cholecystocholangitis?

A.    age of the patient

B.    sex of the patient

C.    the state of the nervous nsystem

D.    the duration of the ndisease

E.     * type of dyskinesia

42.  Dilated intradermal ncapillaries on the back is characteristic for:

A.    Biliary dyskinesia

B.    Gastritis

C.    Duodenitis

D.    Pancreatitis

E.     * Cholecystocholangitis

43.  What are the causes of nprimary chronic pancreatitis?

A.    Pathology of the stomach n

B.    Pathology of  duodenal ulcer

C.    Pathology of the liver

D.    Pathology of intestinal

E.     * Viral-bacterial ninfection

44.  What are the causes of nsecondary chronic pancreatitis?

A.    Viral-bacterial ninfection

B.    Allergic factors

C.    Drug therapy induced nlesion

D.    Abdominal trauma

E.     * Pathology of the liver

45.  Feces in chronic npancreatitis are:

A.    Solid

B.    Thick

C.    Putty-like

D.    Mixed with blood

E.     * Pasty or liquid

46.  What is the normal level nof blood serum amylase in children?

A.    10-15 g / hour  liter

B.    n*16-32 g / hour  liter

C.    33-45 g / hour  liter

D.    46-60 g / hour  liter

E.     n5 – 10 g / hour  liter

47.  Diastasuria is typical nfor:

A.    Hepatitis

B.    Cholecystitis

C.    Colitis

D.    Duodenitis

E.     * Pancreatitis

48.  What is the diet in the nearly days of pancreatitis?

A.    Diet  № 1

B.    Diet  № 5

C.    Diet  № 7

D.    Diet  № 9

E.     * Hunger

49.  What medicine is used to ndecrease the pain in pancreatitis?

A.    Aspirin

B.    Indomethacin

C.    Caffeine

D.    No-spa

E.     * Baralgin

50.  What medicine is used to ntreat an acute attack of pancreatitis?

A.    Penicillin

B.    Heparin

C.    Vicasol

D.    Voltaren

E.     * Contrical

51.  What medicine is used nfor pharmacological suppression of pancreatic function?

A.    Ranitidine

B.    Almagel

C.    Linex

D.    Quamatel

E.     * Creon

52.  What is the nphysiotherapy during exacerbation of chronic pancreatitis?

A.    Ozokerite applications

B.    Inductothermy

C.    UHF (ultra high frequency) n

D.    microwaves

E.     * Gordox electrophoresis

53.  What is the leading netiologic factor of chronic hepatitis?

A.    bacteria

B.    parasites

C.    fungi

D.    prions

E.     * viruses

54.  What is the leading netiological factor of chronic cholecystocholangitis?

A.    feeding character

B.    anomaly of the liver

C.    genetic susceptibility

D.    congenital malformations n

E.     * biliary dyskinesia

55.  What complex of symptoms nis characteristic for chronic hepatitis?

A.    abdominal pain, nbleeding, arthritis

B.    abdominal pain, ndiarrhea, intoxication

C.    abdominal pain, nsplenomegaly, jaundice

D.    everything is correct

E.     * abdominal pain, nhepatosplenomegaly, bleeding

56.  The pathology of biliary ntract is characterized by:

A.    abdominal paiimmediately after taking food

B.    abdominal pain after nsleeping

C.    abdominal pain during nurination

D.    everything is correct

E.     * abdominal pain after nphysical exertion

57.  The dyspeptic syndrome nin the pathology of biliary tract is characterized by:

A.    diarrhea after drinking nmilk

B.    frequent profuse ndiarrhea

C.    persistent constipatiosince birth

D.    everything is correct

E.     * recurrent constipation

58.  Hypotonic biliary ndyskinesia is characterized by:

A.    hungry, nocturnal paiin the abdomen

B.    intense, cramping paiin right hypochondrium

C.    arching pain iumbilical area

D.    intense night pain

E.     * heaviness, discomfort nin the right hypochondrium

59.  Hypertonic biliary ndyskinesia is characterized by: 

A.    heaviness, discomfort ithe right hypochondrium

B.    hungry, nocturnal paiin the abdomen

C.    arching pain iumbilical area

D.    intense night pain

E.     * intense, cramping paiin right hypochondrium

60.  Chronic pancreatitis is ncharacterized by:

A.    hepatomegaly, jaundice, nrecurrent constipation

B.    splenomegaly, jaundice, ndiarrhea

C.    local paipyloroduodenal zone, anemia, constipation

D.    intense night pain

E.     * “girdle” nabdominal pain, anemia, and diarrhea

61.  What is characteristic nfor the liver cirrhosis?

A.    splenomegaly, anemia, nhemorrhage

B.    splenomegaly, anemia, njaundice

C.    hepatosplenomegaly, nanemia, hemorrhage

D.    hyposplenism

E.     * hepatosplenomegaly, nanemia, jaundice,

62.  What is characteristic nfor the gallstone disease?

A.    arching, constant paiin the abdomen

B.    dull, aching pain iright hypochondrium

C.    hungry pain in right nhypochondrium

D.    intense night pain

E.     * intense, cramping paiin the right hypochondrium

63.  Which investigations are nnecessary for patients with hepatobilliary system diseases?

A.    PH-meters, ultrasound, nduodenal probing

B.    PH-metry, EGDS, nultrasound

C.    EGDS, ultrasound, nlaparoscopy

D.    PH-metry, EGDS, duodenal nprobing, ultrasound

E.     * Ultrasound, nlaparoscopy, duodenal probing

64.  Which biochemical tests nare necessary for patients with hepatobilliary system diseases?

A.    total protein, CRP, nseromucoid, bilirubin

B.    total protein and nfractions, urea, creatinine, cholesterol

C.    total protein and nfractions, CRP, seromucoid, urea

D.    total protein and nfractions, seromucoid, bilirubin

E.     * total protein and nfractions, transaminases, bilirubin, cholesterol

65.  What n”cytolysis” syndrome includes?

A.    increasing levels of ncholesterol, direct bilirubin, iron, LDH

B.    reduction of albumin, ncholesterol, bilirubin, CRP

C.    reduction of iron, CRP, nresidual nitrogen, AST, ALT

D.    reduction of iron, CRP, nincreased AST, ALT

E.     * increasing AST, ALT, nLDH, iron, bilirubin

66.  What is observed ireduced synthetic liver function?

A.    luminemia, nhypercholesterolemia, hyperasotemia

B.    hyperbillirubinemia, nhypercholesterolemia, hyperasotemia

C.    reduction of iron, CRP, nincreased AST, ALT

D.    reduction of iron, CRP, nresidual nitrogen, AST, ALT

E.     * hypoalbuminemia, nreduced levels of fibrinogen and prothrombin

67.  What is observed ireduced detoxication liver function?

A.    hyperbillirubinemia, nhypoproteinemia, hypoasotemia

B.    hyperbillirubinemia, nhypoproteinemia, hypophenolemia

C.    hyperasotemia, nhypophenolemia, hyperammoniemia

D.    hypobillirubinemia, nhypoproteinemia, hypophenolemia

E.     * hyperasotemia, nhyperfenolemia, hyperammoniemia

68.  Polyclonal hammapathia nsyndrome is characterized by:

A.    hyperproteinemia, nhypoimmunoglobulinemia, positive sediment samples

B.    hypoproteinemia, nhypoimmunoglobulinemia, hyperbillirubinemia

C.    hypoproteinemia, nhyperimmunoglobulinemia, hyperbillirubinemia

D.    hypobillirubinemia, nhypoproteinemia, hypophenolemia

E.     * hyperproteinemia, nhyperimmunoglobulinemia, positive sediment samples

69.  What ultrasound symptom nis typical for cholecystocholangitis?

A.    enlarged liver

B.    gallbladder deformation

C.    sediment in the ngallbladder

D.    gallbladder hypotonia

E.     * thickening of the gallbladder nwalls

70.  What ultrasound symptom nis typical for hepatitis?

A.    deformation of the bile nducts

B.    thick walls of the bile nducts

C.    multiple concrements

D.    liver size reduction

E.     * diffuse thick structure nof the liver

71.  On what day of the nduodenogastric reflux treatment cholekinetics are prescribed?

A.    20 th

B.    14 th

C.    10 th

D.    2nd

E.     * 7 th

72.  What should be used for nelectrophoresis in duodenogastric reflux?

A.    procaine

B.    magnesium sulfate

C.    papaverine

D.    no-spa

E.     * neostigmine

73.  What should be appointed nfor hypertonic biliary dyskinesia?

A.    holenzim

B.    carsil

C.    convoflavin

D.    motillium

E.     * no-spa

74.  What should be appointed nfor hypotonic biliary dyskinesia?

A.    no-spa

B.    carsil

C.    essenciale

D.    motilium

E.     * holenzim

75.  What is the drug of nchoice for intestine giardiasis?

A.    gentamicin

B.    penicillin

C.    aspirin

D.    pyrantel

E.     * furazolidone

76.  Violation of nitrogeexcretion renal function in the onset of glomerulonephritis is typical for:

A.    isolated urinary nsyndrome

B.    nephrotic syndrome

C.    mixed syndrome

D.    everything is correct

E.     * nephritic syndrome

77.  Excretory urography give nus possibility to evaluate (give the most complete answer):

A.    anatomical status of nurinary tract and urodynamic

B.    calyx-pelvic system nstate

C.    functional ability of nurinary tract

D.    size of the kidneys

E.     * everything is correct

78.  What time after nexacerbation of chronic glomerulonephritis resort treatment is possible?

A.    3 months

B.    12 months

C.    It is not performed

D.    5 years

E.     * 6 months

79.  Which drug is used for nbasic therapy of acute glomerulonephritis with nephrotic syndrome?

A.    Curantyl

B.    Penicillin

C.    Suprastin

D.    Ascorutin

E.     * Prednisolone

80.  Which factor is most nweighty in the etiology of glomerulonephritis?

A.    S aureus

B.    E. cоlі

C.    Influenza virus

D.    hepatitis A

E.     * Streptococci

81.  Which of the pathogenic nmechanisms of damage is characteristic for glomerulonephritis?

A.    bacterial inflammatioof the kidney bowls

B.    immediate type allergic nreaction

C.    violation of the urine npassage 

D.    vesicoureteral reflux

E.     * immune complex nglomerular damage

82.  The nephritic variant of nacute glomerulonephritis is characterized by:

A.    high proteinuria

B.    hyperphosphaturia

C.    pyuria

D.    bacteriuria

E.     * hematuria

83.  What level of nproteinuria is a criterion for nephrotic variant of acute glomerulonephritis?

A.    more than 1 g / day

B.    less than 1 g /day

C.    more than 3 g / l

D.    up to 1 g / l

E.     * more than 3 g / day

84.  What is characteristic nfor the isolated urinary syndrome?

A.    proteinuria up  to 2 g/l

B.    expressed leukocyturia

C.    expressed edema

D.    arterial hypertension

E.     * proteinuria up to 1 g/l

85.  By which investigatiois it possible to evaluate the state of renal concentration function?

A.    analysis of urine

B.    Nechiporenko urine nanalysis

C.    ultrasonic investigation

D.    excretory urography

E.     * Zimnitsky test

86.  Hereditary nephritis ntypically ends with:

A.    Recovering

B.    Formation of npyelonephrosis

C.    Development of nurolithiasis

D.    Acute renal failure

E.     * CRF

87.  Rickets like changes namong hereditary nephropathy are often found at:

A.    Cystic kidneys

B.    Renal without hereditary ndeafness

C.    Renal with hereditary ndeafness

D.    Renal amyloidosis

E.     * Phosphate-diabetes

88.  ?Name the main way of nthe infection entering at pneumonia:

A.    hematogenic

B.    lymphogenic

C.    mixed

D.    urogenic

E.     * bronchogenic

89.  In pneumonia etiology nprevails:

A.    candida

B.    klebsiella

C.    staphylococci

D.    streptococci

E.     * pneumococci

90.  At the early childhood nan acute pneumonia most often is:

A.    interstitial

B.    croupous (lobar)

C.    segmental

D.    polysegmental

E.     * microfocal

91.  Typical physical data at npneumonia are:

A.    diffuse dry wheezes

B.    local small moist nwheezes

C.    diffuse small moist nwheezes

D.    local dry wheezes

E.     * diminished breath nsounds

92.  The chest X-ray sigtypical for acute pneumonia is:

A.    strengthening of npulmonary picture (lung pattern)

B.    emphysema

C.    dilation of lungs’ roots n

D.    pneumosclerosis

E.     * infiltrative shadows

93.  What medicine is not nused for improvement of the rheologic blood properties and microcirculatioduring treatment of acute pneumonia?

A.    rheopoliglucin

B.    heparin

C.    trental

D.    curantil

E.     * droperidol

94.  Duration of an acute npneumonia is:

A.    up to 4 weeks

B.    up to 10 weeks

C.    up to 2 weeks

D.    up to 6 weeks

E.     * up to 8  weeks

95.  In most cases an acute npneumonia at children of the early age develops as a result of:

A.    overheat

B.    super cooling

C.    violation of the regime

D.    upper respiratory tract microbial ninfection

E.     * upper respiratory tract nviral infection

96.  To the pathogenetic nlinks of an acute pneumonia does not belong:

A.    hypoxemia

B.    acidosis

C.    hypoxia

D.    bacteriemia

E.     * alcalosis

97.  To bronchopneumonia are nnot typical such laboratory changes:

A.    leucocytosis

B.    neutrophylosis

C.    elevated ESR

D.    anemia

E.     * reticulocitosis

98.  The clinical features of nan acute pneumonia at children of the early age do not depend on the following:

A.    age

B.    sex

C.    premorbid state

D.    weight

E.     * nationality

99.  To the criteria of aacute pneumonia diagnosis do not belong:

A.    intoxication

B.    local physical changes

C.    respiratory acidosis

D.    percussion changes

E.     * epidemiological history

100.         nCorrelation of pulse and breathing 2 – 1,5 : 1 is typical for:

A.    Respiratory ins. 0 st.

B.    Respiratory ins. I st.

C.    Respiratory ins. II st.

D.    Respiratory ins. IVst.

E.     * Respiratory ins. III nst.

101.         nOxygen saturation of the blood 90 % is typical for:

A.    Respiratory ins. 0 st.

B.    Respiratory ins. II st.

C.    Respiratory ins. III st.

D.    Respiratory ins. IVst.

E.     * Respiratory ins. I st.

102.         nInconstant perioral cyanosis is typical for:

A.    Respiratory ins. 0 st.

B.    Respiratory ins. II st.

C.    Respiratory ins. III st.

D.    Respiratory ins. IVst.

E.     * Respiratory ins. I st.

103.         nLevel РСО2 40 mm Hg. is typical for:

A.    Respiratory ins. 0 st.

B.    Respiratory ins. I st.

C.    Respiratory ins. II st.

D.    Respiratory ins. IVst.

E.     * Respiratory ins. III nst.

104.         nMostly destructive pneumonia is caused by:

A.    pneumococci

B.    proteus

C.    klebsiella

D.    streptococci

E.     * staphylococci

105.         nWhat type of oxygen therapy is the best for a child with the Respiratory nins. III st.?

A.    serve of oxygen through nan oxygen pillow

B.    serve of oxygen in aoxygen tent

C.    serve of oxygen through na nasal catheter

D.    serve of humidified noxygen through a mask

E.     * serve of oxygen through nan intubation tube

106.         nWhat type of oxygen therapy is the best for a child with the Respiratory nins. II st.?

A.    serve of oxygen through nan oxygen pillow

B.    serve of oxygen in aoxygen tent

C.    serve of oxygen through na nasal catheter

D.    serve of oxygen through nan intubation tube

E.     * serve of oxygen through na mask

107.         nWhat group of antibiotics is not used for pneumonia treatment at nchildren of the early age?

A.    penicyllines

B.    aminoglicosydes

C.    cefalosporines

D.    macrolides

E.     * tetracyclin

108.         nAt mild pneumonia antibacterial therapy lasts:

A.    5 – 7 days

B.    3 – 5 days

C.    10 – 14 days

D.    15 – 18 days

E.     * 7 – 10 days

109.         nAt moderate pneumonia antibacterial therapy lasts:

A.    5 – 7 days

B.    7 – 10 days

C.    14 – 20 days

D.    15 – 18 days

E.     * 10 – 14 day

110.         nAt severe pneumonia antibacterial therapy lasts:

A.    7 – 10 days

B.    10 – 14 days

C.    21 – 24 days

D.    24 – 28 days

E.     * 14 – 21 day

111.         nFor treatment of mild pneumonia semisynthetic penicillin’s are used in a ndose:

A.    30 – 50 mg/kg/daily

B.    80 – 100 mg/kg/daily

C.    100 – 150 mg/kg/daily

D.    150 – 200 mg/kg/daily

E.     * 50 – 80 mg/kg/daily

112.         nFor treatment of moderate pneumonia semisynthetic penicillin’s are used nin a dose:

A.    30 – 50 mg/kg/daily

B.    50 – 80 mg/kg/daily

C.    100 – 150 mg/kg/daily

D.    150 – 200 mg/kg/daily

E.     * 80 – 100 mg/kg/daily

113.         nFor treatment of severe pneumonia semisynthetic penicillin’s are used ia dose:

A.    30 – 50 mg/kg/daily

B.    50 – 80 mg/kg/daily

C.    80 – 100 mg/kg/daily

D.    100 – 150 mg/kg/daily

E.     * 150 – 200 mg/kg/daily

114.         nIn definition of pneumonia is absent the following position:

A.    pneumonia is diagnosed nat presence of  respiratory disorders

B.    pneumonia is diagnosed nat presence of tachypnea

C.    pneumonia is diagnosed nat presence of infiltrative changes on x-ray

D.    pneumonia is diagnosed nat presence of  respiratory insufficiency

E.     * it is aoninfectious ndisease of pulmonary parenchyma

115.         nAmong the forms of pneumonia is absent:

A.    community acquired

B.    hospital

C.    ventilator associated

D.    bronchopneumonia

E.     * teenagers’ pneumonia

116.         nIn classification of pneumonia forms is absent:

A.    pneumonia in childrewho have an immune deficit

B.    ventilator  associated

C.    congenital pneumonia

D.    hospital

E.     * extraschool

117.         nHospital pneumonia is one that developed:

A.    during 6 hours being ithe hospital

B.    during 12 hours being ithe hospital

C.    during a 24 hours being nin the hospital

D.    during 56 hours being ithe hospital

E.     * during 48 hours being nin the hospital

118.         nHospital pneumonia is one that developed:

A.    during 6 hours after ndischarge from the hospital

B.    during 12 hours  after discharge from the hospital

C.    during a 24 hours  after discharge from the hospital

D.    during 56 hours  after discharge from the hospital

E.     * during 48 hours  after discharge from the hospital

119.         nPulmonary complications of pneumonia don’t belong to:

A.    pleurisy 

B.    pneumothorax

C.    pyopneumothorax

D.    abscess

E.     * DIC syndrome

120.         nMore often the etiology of community acquired pneumonia in children from n6 months to 6 years is:

A.    chlamydia 

B.    mycoplasm

C.    staphylococcus

D.    E. coli

E.     * pneumococcus

121.         nMore often the etiology of community acquired pneumonia in children from n7 to 15 years is:

A.    streptococcus  

B.    Listeria monocytogenes

C.    hemophilus influenza

D.    E. coli

E.     * pneumococcus

122.         nWhat is the definition of tachypnea in children 2-12 mo:

A.    >80

B.    >60

C.    >40

D.    >35  

E.     * >50 breaths/min

123.         nWhat is the definition of tachypnea in children 1-5 ya:

A.    >50 breaths/min

B.    >80

C.    >60

D.    >35  

E.     * >40

124.         nTo the most frequent etiological agents of hospital pneumonia does not nbelong:

A.    E. coli

B.    proteus

C.    enterobacter

D.    virus

E.     * pneumococcus

125.         nVentilator associated pneumonias (with less than four days of artificial nventilation), usually, are conditioned by:

A.    pneumococcus

B.    B. cereus

C.    enterobacter

D.    virus

E.     * klebsiella

126.         nPneumococci are absolutely non-sensitive to:

A.    penicillines

B.    macrolydes

C.    cephalosporin’s

D.    tetracycline’s

E.     * aminoglicozides

127.         nMedicine of choice to treat typical community acquired pneumonias is:

A.    carbapenems

B.    fluorquinolones

C.    antibiotics of other ngroups

D.    tetracycline’s

E.     * aminopenicillins

128.         nTo the antibiotics of the first choice to treat typical community nacquired pneumonias do not belong:

A.    amoxycillin

B.    macrolides

C.    inhibitor-protected npenicillins

D.    carbapenems

E.     * fluorquinolones

129.         nPositive effect of pneumonia treatment by antibiotic is all, except:

A.    improvement of the ngeneral condition

B.    decrease of temperature nbelow 38°C in 24 – 48 hours from the beginning of treatment

C.    roentgenologic changes ndo not increase or even decrease

D.    decrease of dyspnea

E.     * increase of dyspnea

130.         nAn absent effect of pneumonia treatment by antibiotic is all, except:

A.    fever remains

B.    increase of pathological nchanges in the lungs

C.    increase of dyspnea and nhypoxemia

D.    decrease of dyspnea and nhypoxemia

E.     * improvement of the ngeneral condition

131.         nFor the beginning of lobar pneumonia is not typical:

A.    headache

B.    normal or subfebrile ntemperature

C.    cough with «ferruginous» nsputum

D.    febrile temperature

E.     * poor consciousness

132.         nAt what respiratory insufficiency stage  nis observed inconstant perioral cyanosis ?

A.    At the second

B.    At the third

C.    At all  stages

D.    Does not have the ndiagnostic value

E.     * At the first

133.         nBeginning of lobar pneumonia reminds sometimes:

A.    attack of bronchial nasthma

B.    rheumatism

C.    pyelonephritis

D.    gastritis

E.     * acute appendicitis

134.         nMore often the reason of obstructive bronchitis is:

A.    Parasites

B.    Fungi’s

C.    Bacterial – fungi’s nflora

D.    Viral – fungi’s flora

E.     * Viral – bacterial flora n

135.         nThe beginning of obstructive bronchitis is:

A.    Allergic reactions

B.    Inspiration dyspnea

C.    Expiration dyspnea

D.    Tonsillitis

E.     * Catarrhal syndrome

136.         nAt the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is prevailing:

A.    Intoxication

B.    Dyspnea

C.    Wheezing

D.    Tonsillitis

E.     * Cough

137.         nPercussion during the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is:

A.    Clear lung sound

B.    Dullness of lung sound

C.    Dullness of lung sound nin lower parts

D.    Dullness of lung sound nin upper parts

E.     * Box sound

138.         nAuscultation during the acute phase of obstructive bronchitis is:

A.    Prolonged inspiration

B.    Decrease of breathing

C.    Crepitation

D.    Local moist rales

E.     * Dry rales and moist ndiffuse rales

139.         nDuring the acute period of obstructive bronchitis on X-ray is present:

A.    Particularly clear lung nfield

B.    Hyperinflation

C.    Occasional scattered nareas of consolidation

D.    Local infiltration of nlung tissue

E.     * Perivascular and nperibronhial infiltration, increasing of lung pattern and enlarged roots of nlungs

140.         nThe main treatment of obstructive bronchitis is:

A.    Liquidation of viruses

B.    Desintoxication therapy

C.    Rehydratation therapy

D.    Antibiotics

E.     *  Normalization of drainage function of nbronchus

141.         nThe chest falls on inspiration and rises on expiration. What type of nrespiration is it?

A.    Kussmaul’s respiration

B.    Normal respiration

C.    Biot’s respiration

D.    Cheyne-Stokes nrespiration

E.     * Paradoxical respiration

142.         nWhat type of respiratory movements is in girls after 7 years?

A.    Abdominal

B.    Costal

C.    Sternly

D.    Diaphragmatic

E.     * Thoracic

143.         nWhat is tachypnea?

A.    The distress during nbreathing

B.    The decrease of the nrespiratory rate

C.    The cessation of nbreathing

D.    The increase of the respiratory ndepth

E.     * The increase of the nrespiratory rate

144.         nWhat is an average respiratory rate in 1-year old child?

A.    20

B.    18

C.    50

D.    60

E.     * 30

145.         nWhat is apnea?

A.    The increase of the nrespiratory rate

B.    The distress during nbreathing

C.    The decrease of the nrespiratory rate

D.    The increase of the nrespiratory depth

E.     * The cessation of nbreathing

146.         nWhat is an average respiratory rate in children after 12 years?

A.    22

B.    32

C.    25

D.    45

E.     * 18

147.         nWhat is bradypnea?

A.    The increase of the nrespiratory rate

B.    The distress during nbreathing

C.    The cessation of nbreathing

D.    The decrease of the nrespiratory depth

E.     * The decrease of the nrespiratory rate

148.         nWhat is usual ratio of breaths to heartbeats?

A.    1:1

B.    1:2

C.    1:3

D.    1:5

E.     * 1:4

149.         nWhat is an average respiratory rate  niewborn?

A.    22

B.    30

C.    18

D.    64

E.     * 45

150.         nWhat main clinical features are useful in the diagnosis of nbronchiolitis?

A.    Paroxysmal cough

B.    *Tachypnea

C.    Tachicardia

D.    Tension and flaring of nthe nostris

E.     Wheezing

151.         nWhat main X-ray features are useful in the diagnosis of acute nbronchitis?

A.    Particularly clear lung nfield

B.    Hyperinflation

C.    Occasional scattered nareas of consolidation

D.    Local infiltration of nlung tissue

E.     * Perivascular and nperibronhial infiltration

152.         nWhat examination is most important in the case of bronchitis?

A.    Complete blood count

B.    Culture of sputum

C.    Culture of alveolar nfluid

D.    Biochemical examinatioof the blood

E.     * Chest X-ray

153.         nBronchitis is caused most often by:

A.    Fungi

B.    Bacteria

C.    Parasites

D.    Mixed flora

E.     * Viruses

154.         nAll factors can lead to bronchitis, except:

A.    Cooling

B.    Allergies

C.    Genetically predilection

D.    Bad ecology

E.     * Poor feeding

155.         nSuch auscultation picture may be determined at obstructive bronchitis, nexcept:

A.    Increase vesicular nbreathing

B.    Rough breathing

C.    Puerile breathing

D.    Bronchus breathing

E.     * Local decrease of nvesicular breathing

156.         nWhat is the main feature of bronchiolitis?

A.    Puerile breathing

B.    Dry wrestling rales

C.    Course bubbling rales ilower parts of lungs

D.    Decreased vesicular nbreathing

E.     * Diffuse fine rales

157.         nThe criteria of acute obstructive bronchitis are all, except:

A.    The great quantity of ndry rales

B.    Nonproductive cough

C.    Box sound during npercussion

D.    Perivascular ninfiltration of lung tissue

E.     * Severe intoxication

158.         nThe X-ray criteria of acute bronchitis is all, except:

A.    Increase of lung pattern

B.    Perivascular ninfiltration

C.    Peribronchial ninfiltration

D.    Infiltration of roots

E.     * Atelectasis

159.         nAccording classification bronchitis cannot be:

A.    Acute

B.    Relapse

C.    Chronic

D.    Bronchiolitis

E.     * Latent

160.         nThe main symptom of acute bronchitis is:

A.    Wheezing

B.    Pain in throat

C.    Dyspnea

D.    Hyperthermia

E.     * Cough

161.         nThe first sign of acute bronchitis is everything, except:

A.    Hyperthermia

B.    Wheezing

C.    Pharyngitis

D.    Cough

E.     * Vomiting

162.         nThere is not typical such type of rales during bronchitis:

A.    Diffuse

B.    Symmetrical

C.    Decreasing or ndisappearing of rales after cough

D.    Dry rales

E.     * Local

163.         nThere is not typical such auscultation dates during bronchitis:

A.    Rough breathing

B.    Dry rales

C.    Moist diffuse rales

D.    Decreasing or ndisappearing of rales after cough

E.     * Decrease breathing

164.         nThe auscultation date during bronchitis is:

A.    Puerile breathing

B.    Decrease breathing

C.    Moist local rales

D.    Crepitus rales

E.     * Rough breathing

165.         nDuring acute bronchitis respiratory insufficiency is most often of:

A.    1 stage

B.    2 stage

C.    3 stage

D.    2-3 stage

E.     * 0 stage

166.         nX-ray criterion of acute bronchitis is:

A.    Symmetrical decreasing nof lung pattern

B.    Infiltration of lung ntissue

C.    Infiltration of lung ntissue near roots

D.    Symmetrical decreasing nof lung pattern and infiltration of lung tissue

E.     * Symmetrical increasing nof lung pattern

167.         nComplex of treatment of acute bronchitis does not include:

A.    Mucolitics

B.    Physiotherapy

C.    Antipiretics drugs

D.    Antibiotics

E.     * Antacids drugs

168.         nDrugs, which have no mucolitic effect:

A.    Acetylcistein

B.    Bromhexin

C.    Ambroxol

D.    Claritin

E.     *Mucaltin

169.         nBronchoobstructive syndrome is characterized by:

A.    Paroxysmal breathing

B.    Stridor breathing

C.    Silent breathing

D.    Diminished breathing

E.     * Noisy breathing

170.         nWhat main clinical features are useful in the diagnosis of bronchial nasthma?

A.    Chest pain

B.    Tahycardia

C.    Vomiting

D.    Wet cough

E.     * Dispnoe

171.         nWhat examination is the most important at bronchial asthma?

A.    Stools examination

B.    Culture of sputum

C.    Biochemical examinatioof the blood

D.    Chest X-ray

E.     * Immunoglobulin E

172.         nWhat special substances may be found in sputum in case of bronchial nasthma?

A.    Erythrocytes

B.    Neuthrophyls

C.    Leucocytes

D.    Monocytes

E.     * Eosinophyls

173.         nWhat will be the therapeutic management of acute attacks of asthma?

A.    Anti-inflammatory agents

B.    Commonly sodium

C.    Inhalation of ncorticosteroids

D.    Prednizolon orally

E.     * Bronchodilators

174.         nThere is necessary to use for control the effect of treatment of nbronchial asthma:

A.    Spirography

B.    ECG

C.    Allergic tests

D.    X-ray

E.     * Peak Flow Meter

175.         nMore often the reason of bronchial asthma is the:

A.    Drugs

B.    Food

C.    Bacteria

D.    Viruses

E.     * Dust

176.         nChildren with such pathology have a high risk of the congenital heart ndisease, except for:

A.    Down syndrome

B.    Genetic disorders n(chromosomal abnormalities)

C.    Premature babies

D.    Children with multiple nextracardiac (other than the heart defect) malformations

E.     * Newborns with chronic nintrauterine hypoxia

177.         nWhat symptom is not specific for atrial septal defect?

A.    Difficulty breathing n(dyspnea)

B.    Frequent respiratory ninfections in children

C.    Sensation of feeling the nheart beat (palpitations)

D.    Shortness of breath with nactivity

E.     * Cyanosis

178.         nThe most common symptoms of patent ductus arteriosus are:

A.    Tachycardia or other narrhythmia

B.    Shortness of breath and nother respiratory problems

C.    Enlarged heart

D.    All mentioned above

E.     * Continuous machine-like nmurmur

179.         nWhat heart murmur is characteristic for patent ductus arteriosus?

A.    Systolic

B.    Diastolic

C.    Systolic and diastolic

D.    May be variants

E.     * Continuous machine-like nmurmur

180.         nWhat symptom is not typical for hypoplastic left heart?

A.    cyanosis

B.    cold extremities

C.    Lethargy

D.    Poor pulse

E.     * hepatosplenomegaly

181.         nWhat symptoms are typical for aortic coarctation (aortarctia)?

A.    Dizziness or fainting

B.    Shortness of breath

C.    headache

D.    Chest pain

E.     * all that is mentioned

182.         nAttack of rheumatic fever is more frequent after the:

A.    flu

B.    sinusitis

C.    measles

D.    rhinitis

E.     * scarlet fever

183.         nEtiology of rheumatic fever is:

A.    pneumococcus

B.    the virus of influenza

C.    fungi

D.    staphylococcus

E.     * streptococcus

184.         nWhat does confirm streptococcal etiology of rheumatic fever?

A.    previous measles

B.    previous influenza

C.    previous sepsis

D.    previous pneumonia

E.     * previous acute ntonsillitis

185.         nWhat heart defect is most often formed on a background of rheumatic nfever?

A.    stenosis of aorta valves

B.    insufficiency of aortic nvalves

C.    tricuspid valve ninsufficiency

D.    stenosis of mitral valve

E.     * mitral valve ninsufficiency

186.         nWhat is the main criterion of rheumatic fever?

A.    hepatitis

B.    nephritis

C.    pneumonia

D.    gastritis

E.     * carditis

187.         nWhat is the main criterion of rheumatic fever?

A.    nephritis

B.    hepatitis

C.    pneumonia

D.    gastritis

E.     * carditis

188.         nWhat is the main criterion of rheumatic fever?

A.    hepatitis

B.    dermatitis

C.    pneumonia

D.    gastritis

E.     * polyarthritis

189.         nWhat is the main criterion of rheumatic fever?

A.    dermatitis

B.    nephritis

C.    pneumonia

D.    gastritis

E.     * rheumatic nodules

190.         nWhat is the criterion of carditis?

A.    cardialgias

B.    damage of epicardium

C.    only pericarditis

D.    hypothermia

E.     * damage of myocardium nand endocardium

191.         nWhat is typical for myocarditis?

A.    heart borders narrowed

B.    strengthening of the nheart tones

C.    syndrome WPW

D.    СLС syndrome

E.     * heart borders ndilatation

192.         nWhat is typical for myocarditis?

A.    increase of arterial npressure

B.    normal arterial pressure n

C.    high pulse pressure

D.    СLС syndrome

E.     * decrease of arterial npressure

193.         nFor rheumatic polyartritis is typical:

A.    morning stiffness

B.    constant deformations of nthe joints

C.    damage of spine

D.    damage of neck

E.     * inconstant damage of njoints

194.         nSmall chorea is characterized for..

A.    violation of nconsciousness

B.    central paralyses

C.    damage of the cranial-cerebral nnerves

D.    muscular hypertonia

E.     * muscular hypotonia

195.         nRheumatic endocarditis is characterized by:

A.    accent of 2 tone above nthe aorta

B.    soft systolic murmur othe apex

C.    systolic murmur above nthe pulmonary artery

D.    soft systolic murmur othe aorta

E.     * rough systolic murmur non the apex

196.         nECG in case of rheumatism characteristically is characterized by:

A.    lengthening of the QT ninterval

B.    deformation of the QRS ncomplex

C.    increase of voltage

D.    decrease of voltage

E.     * lengthening of the PQ ninterval

197.         nIn the case of the rheumatism’s acute duration is better to use:

A.    plaquenil

B.    delagyl

C.    ibuprophen

D.    analgin

E.     * aspirin

198.         nIn the case of the rheumatism’s prolonged duration is better to use:

A.    voltaren

B.    ibuprophen

C.    aspirin

D.    analgin

E.     * plaquenil

199.         nWhat is prescribed in case of penicillin allergy for rheumatism netiological treatment?

A.    gentamycin

B.    claforan

C.    chloramphenicol

D.    kanamycin

E.     * erythromycin

200.         nWhat is the dose of prednisolone in case of severe rheumatic carditis?

A.    1 mg/kg;

B.    3 mg/kg;

C.    4 mg/kg;

D.    5 mg/kg

E.     * 2 mg/kg;

201.         nWhat is the complication of rheumatic fever?

A.    tricuspid valve ninsufficiency 

B.    stenosis pulmonary nartery

C.    pulmonary artery valves ninsufficiency 

D.    pulmonary artery valves nstenosis 

E.     * mitral valve ninsufficiency

202.         nWhat is typical for myocardiosclerosis?

A.    low blood pressure

B.    high  blood pressure

C.    bradypnea

D.    tachypnea

E.     * arrhythmia  

203.         nWhat is typical for rheumatic arthritis?

A.    Morning stiffness

B.    Permanent course

C.    Pale skin over joints

D.    All transffered

E.     * Symptoms subside withi2 weeks

204.         nArthralgia associated with rheumatic fever differs from arthralgia nassociated with rheumatoid arthritis by:

A.    Permanent course

B.    More expressed in the nmorning

C.    More expressed in the nevening

D.    Increases day by day

E.     * Absence of tenderness nduring passive movement of the affected joint

205.         nSydenham’s chorea is characterized by involuntary movements, specially:

A.    On the legs

B.    On the hands

C.    On the face

D.    All over the body

E.     * On the face and limbs

206.         nClinic of Sydenham’s chorea includes:

A.    Concomitant npsychological dysfunction

B.    Increased emotional nlabiality

C.    Hyperactivity

D.    Age-regressed behaviour

E.     * All transferred

207.         nChoose WRONG assertion about diagnostic of rheumatic fever

A.    No exact diagnostic test nhas been developed to test for its presence

B.    A careful exam by a nqualified medical practitioner  is nnecessary

C.    Just as there is no nparticular laboratory test to diagnose Rheumatic fever

D.    Throat swab for culture, nAntistreptolysin O titre (ASOT) and blood for acute phase reactants must be ndone

E.     * Only blood tests to ncheck for the presence of a strep infection are helpful

208.         nThe duration of salicylates treatment at rheumatic fever is:

A.    1 week

B.    2 weeks

C.    6 weeks

D.    2 months

E.     * 3-4 weeks

209.         nName the main treatment of rheumatic carditis

A.    Cortiscoteroids

B.    Salicylates

C.    Vasodilators

D.    Digoxin

E.     * All that is mentioned

210.         nName the main treatment of Sydenham’s chorea.

A.    Corticosteroids

B.    Salicylates

C.    Vasodilators

D.    Diuretics

E.     * Haloperidol

211.         nThe acute phase of rheumatic fever lasts in 75% of cases:

A.    2 weeks

B.    4 weeks

C.    2 months

D.    3 months

E.     * 6 weeks

212.         nWhat is primary prevention of rheumatic fever?

A.    Periodic examination of npeople who have a family history of Rheumatic fever

B.    Good nutrition

C.    Obligatory antibiotic ntherapy after dental operations

D.    All that is mentioned

E.     * Treatment of the nstreptococcal upper respiratory infection with antibiotics

213.         nPatients without rheumatic carditis need a secondary prophylaxis:

A.    2 yrs

B.    3 yrs

C.    10 yrs

D.    Whole life

E.     * 5 yrs

214.         nWhat is not acquired heart diseases in children?

A.    Mitral insufficiency

B.    Tricuspid insufficiency

C.    Mitral stenosis

D.    Aortic stenosis

E.     * Coarctation of aorta

215.         nPathogenesis of mitral insufficiency includes:

A.    Constant retrograde flow nof blood in the left atrium during systole of the lef ventricle

B.    Expansion and nhypertrophy of the left ventricle

C.    Stagnation in the npulmonary veins

D.    Decompositions of right nventricular stagnation

E.     * All that is mentioned

216.         nClinic of mitral insufficiency includes:

A.    Weakness

B.    Poor appetite

C.    Pale skin

D.    Nothing that is nmentioned

E.     * Shortness of breath

217.         nClinic of mitral insufficiency includes:

A.    Weakness

B.    Palpitations

C.    Pasty legs and feet

D.    Nothing that is nmentioned

E.     * All that is mentioned

218.         nName the most common rheumatic heart disease

A.    Mitral insufficiency

B.    Coarctation of aorta

C.    Tricuspid insufficiency

D.    Aortic stenosis

E.     * Mitral stenosis

219.         nName auscultation data at mitral stenosis

A.    The second heart sound nis unusually loud

B.    The first heart sound is nunusually dull

C.    The second heart sound nis unusually dull

D.    Heart sounds are normal

E.     * The first heart sound nis unusually loud

220.         nName auscultation data at mitral stenosis.

A.    Mid-diastolic rumbling nmurmur

B.    Mid-systolodiastolic nrumbling murmur

C.    Blowing systolic murmur

D.    Blowing diastolic murmur

E.     * Mid-systolic rumbling nmurmur

221.         nClinic at mitral stenosis includes:

A.    Butterfly rash

B.    Arthralgia

C.    Ascites

D.    All transferred

E.     * Ankle/sacral edema

222.         nName changes of arterial pressure at aortic insufficiency

A.    The maximum arterial npressure is dramatically reduced with high minimum

B.    High arterial pressure non hands and low on legs

C.    Arterial nhypertension 

D.    May be different nvariants

E.     * The minimum arterial npressure is dramatically reduced with high maximum

223.         nThe most characteristic feature in tricuspid insufficiency is:

A.    Systolic murmur

B.    Diastolic murmur

C.    Loud heart tones

D.    Peripheral oedema

E.     * Pulsation of the neck nveins and the liver

224.         nCardiac catheterization provides in tricuspid insufficiency aopportunity to identify:

A.    Size of defect

B.    Diagnose

C.    Presence of hypertrophy

D.    All that is mentioned

E.     * High pressure in the nright atrium and the portal veins

225.         nOn the first place as ethiologic factor at nonrheumatic carditises are:

A.    Bacteria

B.    Viruses + bacteria

C.    Fungi

D.    Alergic reactions

E.     * Viruses

226.         nWhat is the main clinical feature of early congenital carditis?

A.    Physical and psychomotor nretardation

B.    Tachycardia

C.    Occurs under ninfluence  of harmful factors

D.    ECG: high R

E.     * Progressive left-heart ncardiac insufficiency, refraction to the therapy

227.         nFibroelastosis is a result of:

A.    Viral carditis

B.    Bacterial carditis

C.    Fungi carditis

D.    Late congenital carditis

E.     * Early congenital ncarditis

228.         nWhat is used for treatment of acute nonrheumatic carditis?

A.    Chinoline  derivatives+ nonsteroid anti-inflammatory ndrugs 

B.    Antibiotics

C.    Vitamins

D.    All transferred

E.     * Glucocorticoids+ nnonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs

229.         nWhat dose of Heparin is used at treatment of nonrheumatic carditis?

A.    50 U/kg

B.    150 U/kg

C.    200 U/kg

D.    250 U/kg

E.     * 100 U/kg

230.         nWhat type of cardiomyopathy does not exist?

A.    Restrictive ncardiomyopathy

B.    Dilated 

C.    Hypertrophic

D.    Ischemic cardiomyopathy

E.     * Hypotrophic

231.         nWhat is the main symptom of cardiomyopathy?

A.    Fatigue

B.    Difficulty breathing

C.    Poor appetite

D.    All transferred

E.     * Arrhythmia

232.         nWhat investigation can differentiate between hypertrophic, restrictive nor dilated cardiomyopathy in most cases?

A.    24-hour Holter monitor

B.    ECG

C.    X-ray of chest

D.    All that is mentioned

E.     * EchoCG

233.         nWhat is the most common form of cardiomyopathy?

A.    Restrictive

B.    Hypertrophic

C.    Infiltrative

D.    Ischemic

E.     * Dilated 

234.         nBasis of therapy of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is:

A.    Calcium antagonists of nVerapamilum group

B.    Metoprolol succinate

C.    Propranolol

D.    Atenolol

E.     * All that is mentioned

235.         nBasis of therapy of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is:

A.    Antiunrhythmical npreparations 

B.    inhibitors of ACE n(angiotensin converting enzyme)

C.    Cardiac glycozides

D.    All that is mentioned

E.     * Calcium antagonists of nVerapamilum group

236.         nSurgical treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is indicated at:

A.    Immediately after ndiagnose

B.    In early age

C.    Appearance of heart nfailure

D.    All that is mentioned

E.     * Absence of clinical neffect from active medicinal therapy

237.         nSpecify one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency.

A.    Swelling of neck veins

B.    Skin cyanosis

C.    Hepatomegalia

D.    Edema on extremities

E.     * Foamy excretions from nmouth

238.         nSpecify one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency.

A.    Olyguria

B.    Expansion of right nborder of heart     

C.    Decline of arterial npressure   

D.    Edema  on extremities

E.     * Forced sitting positioof body

239.         nAt what degree of cardiac insufficiency does ascites appear?

A.    I A

B.    I B   

C.    II A  

D.    II B

E.     * III

240.         nSpecify indications for prescription of cardiac glycosides.

A.    Atrioventricular nblockade

B.    Expressed bradycardia

C.    Group extrasystoles

D.    Expressed hypokaliemia

E.     * Cardiac insufficiency

241.         n241.      At what type of collapse nis necessary to include mezatoni and adrenalini in urgent   therapy?

A.    Toxic

B.    Sympathotonic

C.    Ortostatic

D.    Hypoxic

E.     * Paralytic

242.         nAt what type of collapse is necessarily to include  aminasini in urgent therapy?

A.    Toxic

B.    Paralytic

C.    Hypoxic

D.    Ortostatic

E.     * Sympathotonic

243.         nRatio of indirect heart massage and artificial respiration for childreof all age groups is:

A.    2:1

B.    3:1

C.    5:1

D.    6:1

E.     * 4:1

244.         nName one of symptoms of acute left heart insufficiency.

A.    Edema of extremities

B.    Accent of 2nd tone on a npulmonary artery   

C.    Swelling of neck veins

D.    Hepatomegaly

E.     * Weak pulse or nundetermined

245.         nPosition of patient at syncope must be:

A.    Horizontal with the low nposition of feet

B.    Half sitting with the ninclined head to the right

C.    Half sitting with the ninclined head to the left

D.    Raised with the low nposition of feet

E.     * Horizontal with high nposition of feet

246.         nThe best medicines at symphatotic collapse are:

A.    Cordiamini, caffeini

B.    Eyphyllini, salbutamoli

C.    Adrenalini, mezatoni

D.    Reopolyglucini, npolyglucini

E.     * Droperidoli,aminasini

247.         nThe best medicines at vagotonic collapse are:

A.    Droperidoli,aminasini

B.    Eyphyllini, salbutamoli

C.    Cordiamini, ncaffeine 

D.    Reopolyglucini, npolyglucini

E.     * Adrenalini, mezatoni

248.         nParoxismal tachycardia is the attack of sudden tachycardia:

A.    More than 90-100 per nminute

B.    More than 110-130 per nminute

C.    More than 130-140 per nminute

D.    More than 200 per minute

E.     * More than 150-180 per nminute

249.         nThe general electrocardiography criteria of paroxysmal tachycardia are:

A.    Presence 3 and anymore ngroups of extrasystoles

B.    Absence of compensating npause

250.         nC.          Cardiac frequency   more than 150 per 1 minute

A.    All that is mentioned

B.    * Outbreak and sudden end

251.         nThe first medicine at treatment of ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia nis:

A.    Cordaroni

B.    Novocainomidi

C.    Corgluconi

D.    Seduxeni

E.     * Lidocaini

252.         nSymptomatic hypertension in children is conditioned:

A.    By illnesses of kidneys

B.    By the anomalies of nvessels

C.    By illnesses of adrenal nglands   

D.    By nothing of these

E.     * By all of these

253.         nBasic in determination of clinical death is:

A.    Absence of the nindependent breathing

B.    Absence of photoreactioof pupils on light

C.    Absence of pulse ocarotid and femoral arteries

D.    All of these

E.     * Permanent expansion of npupils

254.         nWhat drug is possible to enter only intracardiac?

A.    Lidocaini

B.    Atropini

C.    All that is mentioned

D.    sodium hydrocarbonatum

E.     * Adrenalini

255.         nWhat is the best method for diagnostic of arrhythmias?

A.    ECG

B.    EchoCG

C.    Heart catheterization

D.    All transferred

E.     * Holter-monitoring

256.         nChronic cardio-vascular insufficiency (heart failure) is classified as:

A.    Left heart, right heart, narythmogenes, total

B.    Systolic, diastolic, nmixed

C.    Left heart, right heart, nsystolic, diastolic

D.    All of these

E.     * On stages: I-A, I-B, nII-A, II-B,III

257.         nVentricular tachycardia is indeed the most dangerous of the cardiac narrhythmias with a real risk of:

A.    Infarction

B.    Myocardiosclerosis

C.    Heart failure

D.    All transferred 

E.     * Sudden cardiac death

258.         nWhat type of tachycardia does not exit?

A.    Supraventricular ntachycardia

B.    Ectopic atrial ntachycardia

C.    Ventricular tachycardia

D.    All exit

E.     * Restrictive tachycardia

259.         nWhat systemic connective tissue disease is on the first place of nprevalence in children?

A.    Systemic lupus nerythematosus

B.    Dermatomyositis

C.    Periarteritis nodosa

D.    Scleroderma

E.     * Rheumatoid arthritis

260.         nHow many criteria out of ten (according criteria) are enough to put the ndiagnosis of SLE?

A.    3

B.    5

C.    6

D.    7

E.     * 4

261.         nAffection of the eyes is specific for:

A.    Infectious arthritis

B.    Acute rheumatic lever

C.    systemic lupus nerythematosus

D.    Osteomyelitis

E.     * Juvenile rheumathoid narthritis

262.         nThe dose of aspirin for the treatment of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis nis:

A.    10-20 mg/kg/day

B.    25-50 mg/kg/day

C.    100-120 mg/kg/day

D.    150-200 mg/kg/day

E.     * 50-120 mg/kg/day

263.         nThe dose of ibuprofen for the treatment of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis nis:

A.    30-50 mg/kg/day

B.    50-120 mg/kg/day

C.    100-120 mg/kg/day

D.    150-200 mg/kg/day

E.     * 10-30 mg/kg/day

264.         nThe “gold standard” of JRA treatment considered to be:

A.    Aspirin

B.    Cyclophosphamide

C.    Azathioprine

D.    Hydroxychloroquine

E.     * Methotrexate

265.         nHow long should be present arthritis in patient to diagnose JRA n(according WHO criteria)?

A.    More than 1 month

B.    More than 2 months

C.    More than 6 months

D.    More than 1 year

E.     * More than 3 months

266.         nThe main clinical criterion of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is:

A.    Morning stiffness of njoints

B.    Symmetrical affection of nsmall joints

C.    Effusion in joint cavity n(under the capsule)

D.    Joint contracture.

E.     * Arthritis more than 3 nmonths

267.         nAmong clinical criteria of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is NOT present:

A.    Arthritis more than 3 nmonths

B.    Morning stiffness of njoints

C.    Symmetrical affection of nsmall joints

D.    Effusion in joint cavity n(under the capsule)

E.     * Subfebrile temperature

268.         nWhat joints are the most frequently damaged in JRA?

A.    Ankles

B.    Wrists

C.    Elbow

D.    Hip

E.     * Knee

269.         nChoose the most typical sign of rheumatoid arthritis in children idifference from adults:

A.    Symmetrical involvement nof small joints

B.    Rheumatoid nodules

C.    Resistance to the ntreatment

D.    Rare mono- or npauciarticular types development

E.     * Damage of neck and nmandible joints

270.         nWhat is NOT characteristic for the damage of mandible joint at JRA?

A.    Limited possibility to nopen the mouse

B.    Further lower jaw ndysplasia

C.    Pain during opening the nmouse

D.    Crepitating at palpation

E.     * Edema of parotid area

271.         nWhat form is absent in the JRA classification?

A.    Systemic

B.    Pauciarticular

C.    Still’s syndrome

D.    Polyarticular

E.     * Waterhouse-Friderichsesyndrome

272.         nWhat is Still’s syndrome?

A.    Pauciarticular form JRA

B.    Subclinical form JRA

C.    Damage of spine in JRA

D.    Damage of eyes in JRA

E.     * Systemic form JRA

273.         nChoose the most typical sign of Still’s syndrome?

A.    Muscular atrophy

B.    Symmetrical involvement nof small joints

C.    Eyes involvement

D.    Presence of rheumatoid nnodules

E.     * Salmon pink rush on the nbody

274.         nChoose the most typical sign of Still’s syndrome?

A.    Muscular atrophy

B.    Iritis, uveitis

C.    Symmetrical involvement nof small joints

D.    Presence of rheumatoid nnodules

E.     * Fever

275.         nFor polyarticilar form of JRA typical is damage of more than:

A.    1 joint

B.    3 joints

C.    10 joints

D.    4 joints

E.     * 5 joints

276.         nWhat factors contribute to the immune system disturbances observed ilupus?

A.    Genetic predisposition

B.    Hormonal imbalance

C.    Allergens (eggs, drugs)

D.    Sunlight exposure

E.     * All mentioned above

277.         nWhat is the daily dose of prednisolone (mg) for pulse-therapy?

A.    50

B.    100

C.    250

D.    500

E.     * 1000

278.         nWhat daily dose of prednisolone (mg/kg) should be given for treatment of npolyarteritis nodosa with abdominal syndrome?

A.    0,5 – 0,75

B.    1 – 2

C.    2,5 – 5

D.    10

E.     * 5 – 7

279.         nWhat average daily dose of prednizolne (mg/kg) shoild be given for npolyarteritis nodosa treatment?

A.    0,5 – 0,75

B.    2,5 – 3

C.    5-7

D.    10

E.     * 1 – 2

280.         nWhat is the most frequent cardio-vascular system involvement symptom at npolyarteritis nodosa?

A.    Fibroelastosis

B.    Myocarditis

C.    Myocardiosclerosis

D.    Pancarditis

E.     * Ischemia of myocardium

281.         nThe characteristic skin changes at polyarteritis nodosa are named:

A.    Nodular erythema

B.    Annular erythema

C.    «Butterfly»-rash

D.    Heliotrope erythema

E.     * Livedo reticularis

282.         nWhat is NOT the diagnostic criterion of polyarteritis nodosa?

A.    Loss more than 4 kg of nbody weight during the month

B.    Diffuse myalgia

C.    Polyneuropathy

D.    Increased level of urea nin the blood

E.     * Annular (ring-form) nerythema

283.         nWhat from enumerated is NOT typical for dermatomyositis?

A.    Leucocytosis

B.    Creatininuria

C.    Increased activity ALT, АSТ

D.    Presence of MSA

E.     * Lymphocytosis

284.         nWhat is NOT included in Peter’s and Bohan’s criteria of juvenile ndermatomiositis?

A.    Symmetrical proximal nmuscle weakness

B.    Elevated serum enzymes n(CK,CPK, LDH, and/or aldolase)

C.    Abnormal EMG (abnormal nactivity and muscle movements)

D.    Inflammation or necrosis non muscle biopsy

E.     * Hypertermia and nintoxication syndrome

285.         nWhat is NOT included in Peter’s and Bohan’s criteria of juvenile ndermatomiositis?

A.    Symmetrical proximal nmuscle weakness

B.    Characteristic skieruption

C.    Abnormal EMG (abnormal nactivity and muscle movements)

D.    Inflammation or necrosis non muscle biopsy

E.     * All signs mentioned nabove are among criteria

286.         nHeart pain at dermatomyositis is more frequent caused by all enumerated, nEXEPT:

A.    Intercostal myositis

B.    Coronaritis

C.    Necrosis of myofibrils

D.    Pericarditis

E.     * Stenocardia

287.         nLimitation of motions at patients with dermatomyositis is due to:

A.    Flexors hypertonia

B.    Atrophy of muscles

C.    Pain in joints

D.    Damage of innervation

E.     * Pain in muscles

288.         nThe characteristic skin changes at dermatomyositis are named:

A.    Livedo reticularis

B.    Nodular erythema

C.    Annular erythema

D.    «Butterfly»-rash

E.     * Heliotrope erythema

289.         nCalcinosis at dermatomyositis can develop mainly in:

A.    Kidneys

B.    Cardiac muscle

C.    Lungs

D.    Joints

E.     * Perypheral muscles

290.         nDermatomyositis is more frequently seen in:

A.    Boys

B.    Newborns

C.    Preschoolers

D.    Teenagers

E.     * Girls

291.         nWhat of the following is NOT the systemic scleroderma symptom?

A.    Raynaud’s phenomenon

B.    Thickening, hardening, nand discoloration of the skin

C.    Ulcers in the oral ncavity

D.    Swelling of the fingers, nhands, forearms

E.     * Weakness of the proximal nmuscles

292.         nWhat of the following is the systemic scleroderma symptom?

A.    Symmetrical proximal nmuscle weakness

B.    Abnormal EMG (abnormal nactivity and muscle movements)

C.    Inflammation or necrosis non muscle biopsy

D.    Leukocytosis and neosynophilia in peripheral blood

E.     * Thickening, hardening, nand discoloration of the skin

293.         nWhat medicine is used for the basic therapy of systemic scleroderma?

A.    Delagyl

B.    Methotrexate

C.    Ibuprofen

D.    Prednisolone

E.     * Penicillamine

294.         n?Etiology of chronic gastroduodenitis is:

A.    Streptococcus

B.    Staphylococcus

C.    E. coli

D.    Candida

E.     * Helicobacter pylori

295.         nName aggressive factor of the stomach mucus membrane damage:

A.    Mucus production

B.    Prostaglandin Е2

C.    Bicarbonates

D.    NaCl

E.     * HCl

296.         nName aggressive factor of the stomach mucus membrane damage:

A.    Mucus production

B.    Prostaglandin Е2

C.    Bicarbonates

D.    KCl

E.     * Pepsin

297.         nThe regulator of the hydrochloric acid secretion is:

A.    Somastatin

B.    Glucagon

C.    Insulin

D.    Bicarbonates

E.     * Gastrin

298.         nName the factor of the stomach mucus membrane protection:

A.    Pepsin

B.    HCl

C.    Gastrin

D.    NaCl

E.     * Mucus production

299.         nPathogenesis of the gastritis development is:

A.    Increase of mucus nproduction

B.    Increase of bicarbonates nsecretion

C.    Physiological blood nstream in a mucus membrane

D.    Decrease of the salt nacid secretion

E.     * Increase of the salt nacid secretion

300.         nHelicobacter pylori is the cause of:

A.    Esophagitis

B.    Colitis

C.    Hepatitis

D.    Uretritis

E.     * Gastritis

301.         nHelicobacter pylori is colonized at the:

A.    Cardial part of the nstomach

B.    Fundal part of the nstomach

C.    Pyloric part of the nstomach

D.    Esophagus

E.     * Antral part of the nstomach

302.         nWhat enzyme is produced by Helicobacter pylori?

A.    Lactase

B.    Peptidase

C.    Lipase

D.    Amylase

E.     * Urease

303.         nProduct of urea hydrolyses in the gastric juice is:

A.    Oxygen

B.    Nitrogen

C.    Chlorine

D.    HCl

E.     * Ammonium

304.         nWhat neutralizes the ammonia in the stomach juice?

A.    Pepsin

B.    Bicarbonates

C.    Mucus

D.    Ammonium

E.     * HCl

305.         nName main syndromes of chronic gastritis:

A.    Pain, dyspepsic, nhemorrhagic

B.    Disuric, dyspepsic,  intoxication

C.    Pain, hemorrhagic, ndysuric

D.    Pain, dyspepsic, dysuric

E.     * Pain, dyspepsic, nintoxication

306.         nIn the case of increased secretion in patients with gastritis more nprominent is:

A.    Dyspepsia

B.    Intoxication

C.    Dysuria

D.    Hemorrhagic syndrome

E.     * Pain

307.         nIn case of increased secretion in patients with gastritis pain is:

A.    Mild

B.    Dull

C.    Moderate

D.    No intensive

E.     * Intensive

308.         nIn case of decreased secretion in patients with gastritis pain is:

A.    intensive

B.    acute

C.    absent

D.    moderate

E.     * mild

309.         nAt patients with hyperacidic gastritis pain arises up through:

A.    30-45 min. after a meal

B.    45-60 min. after a meal

C.    1-1.5 hours after a meal

D.    2-2.5 hours after a meal

E.     *  15-30 min. after a meal

310.         nAt patients with duodenitis pain arises up more frequent through:

A.    15-30 min. after a meal

B.    30-45 min. after a meal

C.    45-60 min. after a meal

D.    2-2.5 hours. after a nmeal

E.     * 1-1.5 hours. after a nmeal

311.         nMost frequent localization of pain at gastritis is:

A.    In mesogastrium

B.    Right hypochondria

C.    Left hypochondria

D.    Hypogastria

E.     * Epigastria

312.         nMost frequent localization of pain at duodenitis is:

A.    In mesogastrium

B.    Right hypohondrium

C.    Left hypochondria

D.    Hypogastria

E.     * Pyloroduodenal area

313.         nPain on empty stomach is characteristic for patients with: 

A.    Normal acid production

B.    Decreased acid nproduction

C.    Achlorhydria

D.    Hypochlorhydria

E.     * Increased acid nproduction

314.         nNightly pains are characteristic for patients with:

A.    Normal acid production

B.    Decreased acid nproduction

C.    Achlorhydria

D.    Hypochlorhydria

E.     * Increased acid nproduction

315.         nPredominance of pain above a dyspepsia syndrome is characteristic for ngastroduodenitis with:

A.    Normal acid production

B.    Decreased acid nproduction

C.    Achlorhydria

D.    Hypochlorhydria

E.     * Increased acid nproduction

316.         nPredominance of dyspepsia above a pain syndrome is characteristic for ngastroduodenitis with:

A.    Increased acid nproduction

B.    Normal acid production

C.    Achlorchydria

D.    Hypochlorhydria

E.     * Decreased acid nproduction

317.         nFeeling of overweight in epigastria is characteristic for patients nwith:   

A.    Increased acid nproduction

B.    Normal acid production

C.    Achlorhydria

D.    Hypochlorhydria

E.     * Decreased acid nproduction

318.         nMeteorism is characteristic for gastritis with:

A.    Increased acid nproduction

B.    Normal acid production

C.    Achlorhydria

D.    Hypochlorhydria

E.     * Decreased acid nproduction

319.         nConstipation is characteristic for gastritis with: 

A.    Normal acid production

B.    Decreased acid nproduction

C.    Achlorhydria

D.    Hypochlorhydria

E.     * Increased acid nproduction

320.         nSecondary gastroduodenitis develops more frequently on the background nof:

A.    Food poisoning

B.    Helicobacter pylori npersistency

C.    Parasites invasion

D.    Gastroenteral nenzymopathy

E.     * Other chronic diseases nof digestive organs

321.         nChronic gastroduodenitis more frequently begins at children in:

A.    The first month of life

B.    The first year of life

C.    First three years of nlife

D.    School age

E.     * Preschool age

322.         nChronic gastroduodenitis more frequently combines with diseases of:

A.    CNS

B.    Respiratory system

C.    Heart and vessels

D.    Urinary system

E.     * Hepatobiliary system

323.         nWhat syndrome is the most constant in case of chronic gastroduodenitis nat children?

A.    Dyspepsic

B.    Intoxication

C.    Epithelial

D.    Hemrrhagic

E.     * Pain

324.         nThe intensity of dyspepsia at chronic gastroduodenitis in childredepends on:

A.    Age of child

B.    Peculiarities of feeding

C.    Intervals between the nreceptions of meal

D.    Balanced food ningredients

E.     * Secretory function

325.         nIn case of the decreased stomach juice acidity more frequently is nobserved:

A.    Constipation

B.    Intensive pain

C.    “Hungry” pain

D.    Vomiting

E.     * Diarrhea

326.         nIn case of the decreased stomach juice acidity is not characteristic:

A.    Constipation

B.    Pain in epigastrium

C.    Belch (regurgitation)

D.    Nausea

E.     * Diarrhea

327.         nClassification of the chronic gastroduodenitis by the etiology is:

A.    Inborn and acquired

B.    Postinfectious and nalimentary

C.    Widespread and limited

D.    Allergic and toxic

E.     * Primary and secondary

328.         nWhat secretory function in gastritis is the most characteristic for nchildren?

A.    Decreased

B.    Decreased or normal

C.    Decreased

D.    Served

E.     * Increased or normal

329.         nWhat from the instrumental methods is most informative for the ndiagnostics of chronic astroduodenitis?

A.    рН-metry

B.    Breath test

C.    Colonoscopy

D.    X-ray of abdomen

E.     * nEsophagogastroduodenoscopy

330.         nIn children most rare chronic gastroduodenitis according the endoscopic ndescription is:

A.    Superficial

B.    Hemorrhagic

C.    Mixed

D.    Erosive

E.     * Atrophic

331.         nWhat from the helicobacteriosis diagnostics methods belongs to invasive?

A.    PCR of feces and saliva

B.    Respiratory tests

C.    Determination of nspecific immunoglobulines

D.    “Aerotest”

E.     * Biopsy of the stomach nmucus membraine with its bacteriological investigation

332.         nWhat does determine duration of the bed regime in case of chronic ngastroduodenitis in children?

A.    Severity of dyspepsia

B.    Type of secretion

C.    Age of child

D.    Endoscopic changes

E.     * Severity of paisyndrome

333.         nWhat diet is appointed at the exacerbation of chronic gastroduodenitis?

A.    № 1

B.    № 5

C.    № 10

D.    № 9

E.     * № 1A, 1B

334.         nWhat from antacids is the most reasonable to appoint to the children?

A.    Sodium hydrocarbonate

B.    Calcium carbonate

C.    Magnesium hydrochloride n+ Carbonic acid

D.    Carbonic acid

E.     * Aluminium hydrate + nMagnesium hydrochloride

335.         nWhat from the medicine belongs to Н2 histamine-blockers?

A.    Maalox

B.    Vicalin

C.    Methacin

D.    Gastropharm

E.     * Cimetidin

336.         nWhat from medicine belongs to procinetics?

A.    Panzynorm

B.    Renegast

C.    Bellaspon

D.    Ranitidin

E.     * Domperidon

337.         nWhat physical therapy procedure is reasonable to apply to the childrewith chronic gastroduodenitis with the expressed pain syndrome?

A.    Ozocerite appliques

B.    Probbing with xylitol

C.    Diathermy

D.    Balneotherapy

E.     * Electrophoresis with nnovocaine

338.         nWhat from the named medicine is used for Helicobacter pylori neradication?

A.    Maalox

B.    Motilium

C.    Cimetidin

D.    Benzylpenicilliun

E.     * De-nol

339.         nThe leading symptom of the 1st stage of peptic ulcer disease is:

A.    Vomiting

B.    Belch (regurgitation)

C.    Heartburn

D.    Local tension of muscles

E.     * Pain

340.         nThe sequence of symptoms at the Moinighan rhythm is the following:

A.    The intake of meal – npain – hunger – relief

B.    Pain – hunger – the nintake of meal – relief

C.    Hunger – relief – the nintake of meal – pain

D.    The intake of meal – nrelief – pain – hunger

E.     * Hunger – pain – the nintake of meal – relief

341.         nName the forms of chronic hepatitis at children:

A.    Persistent, active, nautoimmune

B.    Medicinal, autoimmune, nalcoholic

C.    Cryptogenic, viral, ntoxic

D.    Cryptogenic, autoimmune, ntoxic, alcoholic

E.     * Viral, autoimmune, nmedicinal-induced, toxic

342.         nPhases of chronic hepatitis activity are:

A.    Active (minimum, nmoderate, expressed)

B.    Active (mild, moderate, nsevere) and nonactive

C.    Active, incomplete nclinic-laboratory remission, complete clinic-laboratory remission

D.    Incomplete nclinic-laboratory remission, complete clinic-laboratory remission

E.     * Active (minimum, nmoderate, expressed) and nonactive

343.         nTo the necessary biochemical researches for patients with the diseases nof hepatobiliary system belong:

A.    General albumen, CRP, nseromucoid, bilirubin

B.    General protein and nfractions, urea, creatinin, cholesterol

C.    General protein and nfractions, CRP, seromucoid, urea

D.    General protein and nfractions, CRP, cholesterol

E.     * General protein and nfractions, transaminases, bilirubin, cholesterol

344.         nThe syndrome of “cytolysis” includes:

A.    Increase level of ncholesterol, iron, LDG

B.    Decrease level of nproteins, cholesterol, bilirubin, СRP

C.    Decrease level of iron, СRP, remaining nitrogen, АsАТ, АlАТ

D.    Decrease of the АsАТ level, АlАТ, LDG, iron, bilirubin

E.     * Increase of the АsАТ level, АlАТ, LDG, iron, bilirubin

345.         nName basic clinical signs of cholestasis syndrome:

A.    Jaundice, nhepatosplenomegaly

B.    Pallor, jaundice,  hepatosplenomegaly

C.    Stomach-aches, jaundice

D.    Pallor, skin itching

E.     * Jaundice, skin itching

346.         nMarkers of the chronic hepatitis С are:

A.    HBe Ag, HBs Ag, HBV-DNA, nanti-HBe Ig G, anti-HBs Ig G

B.    HAV-RNA, anti-HAV Ig M, nanti-HAV Ig G

C.    HBs Ag, HDV-RNA, nanti-HDV Ig M, anti-HBe Ig M

D.    HGV-RNA, anti-E2 HGV

E.     * HСV-RNA, anti-HСV Ig M

347.         nMarkers of the chronic hepatitis D are:

A.    HBe Ag, HBs Ag, HBV-DNA, nanti-HBe Ig G, anti-HBs Ig G

B.    HAV-RNA, anti-HAV Ig M, nanti-HAV Ig G

C.    HСV-RNA, anti-HСV Ig M

D.    HGV-RNA, anti-E2 HGV

E.     * HBs Ag, HDV-RNA, nanti-HDV Ig M, anti-HBe Ig M

348.         nMarkers of the chronic hepatitis G are:

A.    HBe Ag, HBs Ag, HBV-DNA, nanti-HBe Ig G, anti-HBs Ig G

B.    HAV-RNA, anti-HAV Ig M, nanti-HAV Ig G

C.    HСV-RNA, anti-HСV Ig M

D.    HBs Ag, HDV-RNA, nanti-HDV Ig M, anti-HBe Ig M

E.     * HGV-RNA, anti-E2 HGV

349.         nWhat color of feces is in case of viral hepatitis?

A.    Bright-yellow

B.    Dark-brown

C.    Mud-color

D.    Black

E.     * Clays color

350.         nWhat medicine does belong to interferons?

A.    Essentiale

B.    Cholenzym

C.    Carsyl

D.    Prednisolon

E.     * Intron A

351.         nViferon is the medicine of group:

A.    Glucocorticoids

B.    Antibiotics

C.    Antihystamine

D.    Vitamins

E.     * Interferon

352.         nMain treatment of autoimmune hepatitis is:

A.    Antiviral therapy

B.    Antibiotic therapy

C.    Immunomodulators

D.    Antihystamines

E.     * Immunesuppressive ntherapy

353.         nWhat medicine with immune suppressive effect will you use for treatment nof chronic hepatitis?

A.    Voltaren

B.    Cycloferon

C.    Essential

D.    Vitamins

E.     * Prednisolon

354.         nWhat medicine does belong to immune suppressive therapy of chronic nhepatitis?

A.    Indomethacin

B.    Penicillin

C.    Cholenzym

D.    Vitamins

E.     * Azatioprin

355.         nPrimary dyskinesia of bile ducts is connected with:

A.    Pathology of stomach

B.    Pathology of duodenum

C.    Pathology of large nintestine

D.    Pathology of esophagus

E.     * Neurohumoral regulatiodysfunction

356.         nSecondary dyskinesia of bile ducts is connected with:

A.    Neurohumoral regulatiodysfunction

B.    Disorder of  the vegetative nervous system

C.    Pathology of hypophysis

D.    Pathology of esophagus

E.     * Pathology of stomach nand duodenum

357.         nAt the decreased synthetic function of liver is observed:

A.    Hyperbilirubinemia, ndecreased levels of fibrinogen and protrombin

B.    Hypoalbuminemia, nhypercholesterolemia, hyperazotemia

C.    Hyperbilirubinemia, nhypercholesterolemia, hyperazotemia

D.    Hyperalbuminemia, ndecreased levels of fibrinogen and protrombin

E.     * Hypoalbuminemia, ndecreased levels of fibrinogen and protrombin

358.         nAbout the decreased detoxication function of liver testifies:

A.    Hyperbilirubinemia, nhypoproteinemia, hypoazotemia

B.    Hyperbilirubinemia, nhypoproteinemia, hypophenolemia

C.    Hypoazotemia, nhyperphenolemia, hypoamiakemia

D.    Hypoazotemia, nhypophenolemia, hyperamiakemia

E.     * Hyperazotemia, nhyperphenolemia, hyperamiakemia

359.         nUltrasonography signs of hypotonic form of bile ducts dyskinesia are:

A.    Increase of liver

B.    Goal bladder is ndiminished in sizes

C.    Diminishment of liver

D.    Decrease of liver

E.     * Enlarged goal bladder

360.         nUltrasonography signs of hypertonic form of bile ducts dyskinesia are:

A.    Increase of liver

B.    Diminishment of liver

C.    Enlarged goal bladder

D.    Decrease of liver

E.     * Goal bladder is ndiminished in sizes

361.         nIn treatment of hypotonic form of bile ducts dyskinesias apply:

A.    Analgetics

B.    Spasmolitics

C.    Hepatoprotectors

D.    Vitamins

E.     * Choleretics and ncholekinetics

362.         nIn treatment of hypertonic form of bile ducts dyskinesias apply:

A.    Analgetics

B.    Antibiotics

C.    Hepatoprotectors

D.    Vitamins

E.     * Spasmolitics and nsedatives

363.         nEtiology of chronic cholecystocholangitis is:

A.    Streptococcus

B.    Viruses

C.    Micopolasms

D.    Staphylococcus

E.     * E. coli

364.         nChronic cholecystocholangitis is the chronic inflammation of:

A.    Stomach and duodenum

B.    Stomach and goal bladder

C.    Goal bladder and npancreas

D.    Stomach and bile ducts

E.     * Goal bladder and bile nducts

365.         nLeading syndromes in case of chronic cholecystocholangitis are:

A.    Pain, dysuria

B.    Toxic, hemorrhagic

C.    Dyspepsia, dysuria

D.    Pain, toxic

E.     * Pain, dyspepsia

366.         nPresence of vascular asterisks is characteristic for:

A.    Gastritis

B.    Duodenitis

C.    Bile ducts dyskinesia

D.    Colitis

E.     * Cholecystocholangitis

367.         nToxic syndrome is more characteristic for:

A.    Bile ducts dyskinesia

B.    Gastritis

C.    Duodenitis

D.    Colitis

E.     * Cholecystocholangitis

368.         nEnlargement of liver is typical for:

A.    Bile ducts dyskinesia

B.    Gastritis

C.    Pancreatitis

D.    Colitis

E.     * Cholecystocholangitis

369.         nMedicine of choice at the cytolitic syndrome is:

A.    Cholenzym

B.    Interferon

C.    No-spa

D.    Papaverin

E.     * Essentiale

370.         nMedicine of choice at cholestasis is:

A.    Essentiale

B.    Carsil

C.    No-spa

D.    Papaverin

E.     * Cholenzym

371.         nMedicine of choice at the low synthetic function of liver is:

A.    Essentiale

B.    Cholenzym

C.    Interferon

D.    Papaverin

E.     * Carsyl

372.         nDistension of the skin capillaries on the back is characteristic for:

A.    Bile ducts dyskinesia

B.    Gastritis

C.    Duodenitis

D.    Colitis

E.     * Cholecystocholangitis

373.         nMedicine of choice in case of lambliosis (giardiasis) is:

A.    Gentamycin

B.    Penicillin

C.    Aspirin

D.    Papaverin

E.     * Furasolidon

374.         nCauses of secondary chronic pancreatitis are:

A.    Viral-bacterial ninfections

B.    Allergic factors

C.    Medicinal damages

D.    Traumas of stomach

E.     * Liver pathology

375.         nLocalization of pain at chronic pancreatitis:

A.    In the right subcostal narea

B.    In the left subcostal narea

C.    In the left inguinal narea

D.    In the right inguinal narea

E.     * In epigastrium

376.         nTypical point tenderness at chronic pancreatitis is:

A.    Mendehl

B.    Kehr

C.    Orthner

D.    Maslov

E.     * Mayo-Robson

377.         nWhat symptom is a positive at chronic pancreatitis?

A.    Mendehl

B.    Orthner

C.    Musse-Georgievsky

D.    Kehr

E.     * Shoffar

378.         nFeces at chronic pancreatitis are:

A.    Solid

B.    Thick

C.    Putty-like

D.    Normal

E.     * Porridge-like or liquid

379.         nChronic pancreatitis is characterized by:

A.    Hyperbilirubinemia

B.    Hypoamylasemia

C.    Hypercholesterolemia

D.    Hypobilirubinemia

E.     * Hyperamylasemia

380.         nSteatorrhea is characteristic for:

A.    Gastritis

B.    Hepatitis

C.    Colitis

D.    Esophagatis

E.     * Pancreatitis

381.         nKreatorrhea is characteristic for:

A.    Gastritis

B.    Hepatitis

C.    Colitis

D.    Esophagatis

E.     * Pancreatitis

382.         nAmylase level of blood is:

A.    10-15 g/hour/l

B.    33-45 g/hour/l

C.    46-60 g/hour/l

D.    60-90 g/hour/l

E.     * 16-32 g/hour/l

383.         nDiastasuria is characteristic for:

A.    Hepatitis

B.    Cholecystitis

C.    Colitis

D.    Esophagatis

E.     * Pancreatitis

384.         nFor correction of endotoxic shock in the patients with pancreatitis is nused:

A.    Albumen

B.    Crioprecipitate

C.    Haemodes

D.    Heparin

E.     * Rheopoliglucin

385.         nWhat parasites may not be present in bile?

A.    Giardia

B.    Opistarchosis

C.    Stroingyloides

D.    All may be present

E.     * Ascaridosis

386.         nAll of the following conditions are cause of glomemlonephritis, except:

A.    Bacterial infection

B.    Viral

C.    Fungal

D.    Vaccination

E.     * Allergies

387.         nWhich symptom is the criterion of nephritic variant of acute nglomerulonephritis?

A.    nLeucocyturia

B.    nBacteruria

C.    Anasarca

D.    Proteinuria more than 3g nper day

E.     *Hematuria

388.         nWhat investigation must be performed to confirm the kidneys dysfunctioduring chronic glomerulonephritis?

A.    General analysis of nurine

B.    Nechiporenko test

C.    Estimation of daily nproteinuria

D.    Estimation of ncholesterol

E.     * Endogenous creatiniclearance

389.         nWhat dose of heparin is necessary to prescribe for treatment of acute nglomerulonephritis?

A.    50-100 IU/kg

B.    10-20 IU/kg

C.    500-600 IU/kg

D.    250-500 IU/kg

E.     * 100-300 IU/kg

390.         nWhich position is incorrect in relation to treatment of nephrotic nsyndrome:

A.    Corticosteroid therapy nis appointed

B.    The dose of diuretics is ndepending from an effect

C.    During the expressed nedema and hyper coagulation it is necessary to prescribe heparin

D.    It is necessary to nprescribe cytostatics according the needing

E.     * To all patients with nnephrotic syndrome it is necessary to prescribe cytostatics

391.         nDuring the hormone depending nephrotic form of chronic nglomerulonephritis it is necessary to prescribe with the prednisolone:

A.    Non-steroid nantiinflamation drugs

B.    Preparates of naminohinoline group

C.    Heparin

D.    Curantil

E.     * Cytostatics

392.         nWhich method of research is most informing at the syndrome of malignant nhypertension?

A.    X-ray of kidneys

B.    Excretory X- ray of nkidneys

C.    Ultrasound investigatioof kidneys

D.    Biochemical analysis of nblood

E.     * Angiography

393.         nWhich syndrome is contraindication for prescribing of heparin?

A.    Nephrotic syndrome of nacute glomerulonephritis

B.    Mixed form of chronic nglomerulonephritis

C.    Sub acute malignant nglomerulonephritis

D.    Nephrotic syndrome of nchronic glomerulonephritis

E.     * Aplastic anemia

394.         nWhich position is incorrect relatively to nephritic variant of edema nsyndrome?

A.    Edema syndrome more nfrequent is moderately expressed

B.    In. the basic of nmechanism of such edema is violation of the vascular penetrating

C.    In the basic of nmechanism of such edema hypoproteinemia is not important

D.    In. the basic of nmechanism of such edema is increase of pressure

E.     * In the basic of nmechanism of such edema is hypoproteinemia

395.         nWhich variant of therapy is most expedient during the mixed form of nchronic glomerulonephritis?

A.    Monotherapy of nprednizolone

B.    Prednisolone and heparin

C.    Prednisolone and hepariwith curantil

D.    Prednisolone and hepariwith curantil and cytostatics

E.     * Prednisolone and ncytostatics

396.         nWhich position is incorrect in relation to treatment of nephrotic nsyndrome?

A.    Corticosteroid therapy nis appointed

B.    The dose of diuretics ndepends of effect

C.    During edema syndrome nand hypercoagulation it is necessary to prescribe heparin

D.    Cytostatics are nprescribing only according indications

E.     * Cytostatics are nprescribing to all patients

397.         nViolation of desintoxication function of kidneys in the beginning of nglomerulonephritis is characteristic for:

A.    Isolated urinary nsyndrome

B.    Nephrotic syndrome

C.    Mixed form

D.    Nephrotic syndrome with narterial hypertension

E.     * Nephritic syndrome

398.         nWhich biochemical test can’t demonstrate activity of inflammatory nprocess of glomerulonephritis?

A.    Protein and its nfractions

B.    C – reactive protein

C.    Seromucoid

D.    ESR

E.     * Ca and P of blood

399.         nThe children of school age have normal content of creatinine in the nblood:

A.    2,1-3,2 mmol/l

B.    4,3-7,3 mmol/l

C.    15,0-17,3 mmol/l

D.    4,2- 1,1 mmol/l

E.     * Up to 0,1 mmol/l

400.         nWhich formula is necessary for the calculation of day’s amount of urine nfor children?

A.    500х(n+5), where n-amount of years

B.    mass +10

C.    600х(n+5), where n-amount of years

D.    600х(n+10), where n-amount of years

E.     * 600+100(n-1), where nn-amount of years

401.         nExcretory urography allows estimate:

A.    nAnatomical state of urinary tract and nurodinamics

B.    State of nephrons

C.    Functional state of nurinary tract

D.    State of urinary bladder

E.     n*Functional state of urodinamics

402.         nExcretory urography does not allow discover:

A.    Position, sizes, form of nkidneys

B.    State of nephrons

C.    Functional state of nurinary tract

D.    Anomaly of kidney nvessels

E.     n*State of urinary bladder

403.         nWhat is the main feature of kidney edema?

A.    Appears at morning, nwarm, pale

B.    Appears in the second nhalf of day, cold, cyanotic

C.    Dense

D.    Disposed mainly on trunk

E.     n*Disposed mainly on place or sex organs

404.         nKidney angiography is the main investigation for:

A.    Suspicion on the defects nof development or disease of vessels

B.    Arterial hypertension

C.    Nephroptosis

D.    Nephritis

E.     n*Glomerulonephritis

405.         nWhat is the normal correlation between daily and nightly dieresis?

A.    1:1

B.    2:1

C.    3:1

D.    4:1

E.     n*1:2

406.         nWhich drug do we use for pathogenetical treatment of nephrotic syndrome?

A.    Penicillin

B.    Curantil

C.    Suprastin

D.    Ascorutin

E.     * Prednisolone

407.         nWhich diet is necessary prescribes during acute glomerulonephritis?

A.    1

B.    2

C.    3

D.    5

E.     * 7

408.         nWhat reason of glomerulonephritis is the more often?

A.    Staphylococcus

B.    E.Соlі

C.    Virus of hepatitis A

D.    Virus of flu

E.     * Streptococcus

409.         nWhat is the main pathogenetical mechanism of development of nglomerulonephritis?

A.    Bacterial inflammation

B.    Allergy reaction

C.    Violation of passage of nurine

D.    Reflux

E.     * Immunocomplex damaging

410.         nWhich symptom is not characteristic for glomerulonephritis?

A.    Pain in back

B.    Hypertension

C.    Edema

D.    Oliguria

E.     * Pain during the act of nurination

411.         nFor nephrotic variant of acute glomerulonephritis is characteristic:

A.    Hypoglycemia

B.    Hyperbilirubinemia

C.    Azotemia

D.    Hypocalcaemia

E.     * Hyperlipidemia

412.         nWhich level of proteinuria is the criterion of nephrotic variant of nacute glomerulonephritis?

A.    2-3 g/l

B.    1-3 g/l

C.    Up to 1 g/l

D.    0,5-2 g/l

E.     * 3 g/l and more

413.         nWhich symptom isn’t characteristic for isolated urine syndrome during nacute glomerulonephritis:

A.    Proteinuria

B.    Erythrocyturia

C.    Cylindruria

D.    Absence of extra renal nsigns

E.     * Leucocyturia

414.         nWhich investigation is demonstrates the concentration function of nkidneys?

A.    General analysis of nurine

B.    Analysis of urine by nNechiporenko

C.    Ultrasound investigatioof kidneys

D.    Biochemical analysis of nblood

E.     * Analysis of urine by nZimnitskiy

415.         nWhich sign does give information about the damaging of function of nkidneys?

A.    Hypoproteinemia

B.    Proteinuria

C.    Hyperlipidemia

D.    Hyperglycemia

E.     * Asotemia

416.         nThe main criterion of hematuric form of chronic glomerulonephritis is:

A.    Arterial hypertension

B.    Proteinuria

C.    Cylindruria

D.    Leucocyturia

E.     * Hematuria

417.         nSevere edema syndrome is most characteristic for:

A.    Nephritic syndrome

B.    Mixed form of chronic nglomerulonephritis

C.    Hematuric form

D.    Isolated urinary nsyndrome

E.     * Nephrotic syndrome

418.         nWhat is the reason of pain during glomerulonephritis:

A.    Inflammation syndrome

B.    Stagnation of urine

C.    Physical exertion

D.    Hematuria

E.     * Enlargement of capsules nof kidneys

419.         nWhich medicine do we use during pathogenetical treatment of nephritic nvariant of lomerulonephritis?

A.    Reserpin

B.    Lasix

C.    Tavegil

D.    Delagil

E.     * Prednisolone

420.         nWhich dose of indometacin is use for treatment of nephritic variant of nglomerulonephritis?

A.    1-2 mg/kg/day

B.    3 – 5 mg/kg/day

C.    0,5 – 1 mg/kg/day

D.    0,8 – 1 mg/kg/day

E.     * 2-3 mg/kg/day

421.         nIt is nessesary to prescribe imunosupressors during acute nglomerulonephritis in the case of:

A.    Suddenly beginning of ndisease

B.    Severe proteinuria

C.    The absence of effect nfrom the treatment of prednisolone during 3-4 weeks in the case of nephritic nvariant

D.    The damaging of nfunctions of kidneys at the beginning of disease

E.     * The absence of effect nfrom the treatment of prednisolone during 3-4 weeks in the case of nephrotic nvariant

422.         nSevere edema syndrome is more characteristic for:

A.    Myocarditis

B.    Pyelonephritis

C.    Kidney stones disease

D.    Cystitis

E.     * Glomerulonephritis

423.         nThe Zimnitski test of urine gives information about:

A.    Bacteruria

B.    Leucocyturia

C.    Erithrocyturia

D.    Glucosuria

E.     * Concentration function

424.         nWhich from these products are eliminated in a diet 7?

A.    Rice

B.    Porridge

C.    Vegetable puree

D.    Egg

E.     * Meat

425.         nWhat from diseases more frequent can result in development of chronic nkidney insufficiency?

A.    Kidney stones disease

B.    Metabolic nephropathies

C.    Reflux

D.    Oxalaturia

E.     * Glomerulonephritis nchronic

426.         nThe middle age dose of lasix is:

A.    4-5 mg/kg/day

B.    10 mg/kg/day

C.    0,5-1 mg/kg/day

D.    0,5mg/kg/day

E.     * 1-2 mg/kg/day

427.         nWhat test is used to confirm filtration function of kidneys?

A.    Urinanalysis

B.    Nechiporenco

C.    Zimnitski test

D.    Rebergs test

E.     * Creatinine clerance ntest

428.         nThe most frequent complication of hereditary nephropathy is:

A.    ARF

B.    Pyelonephrosis

C.    Nephrolithiasis

D.    Amiloidosis of kidneys

E.     * CRF

429.         nThe development of hereditary nephropathy is often associated with:

A.    Sex chromosome nabnormality

B.    Chronic inflammatory ndiseases of the mother

C.    Measles of pregnant nwomen

D.    Change of the number of nchromosomes

E.     * Gene mutations

430.         nWhat is Alport syndrome?

A.    Cystic kidneys

B.    Hereditary nephritis nwithout deafness

C.    Renal diabetes

D.    Embryonic kidney tumor

E.     * Hereditary nephritis nwith deafness

431.         nWhat kidney disease is disease with chromosomal aberrations?

A.    Hereditary nephritis

B.    Primary tubulopathy

C.    Secondary tutulopathy

D.    Renal amyloidosis

E.     * Cystic kidneys

432.         nDisease caused by gene mutations is:

A.    Primary tubulopathy

B.    Secondary tubulopathy

C.    Renal amyloidosis

D.    Cystic kidneys

E.     * Hereditary nephritis

433.         nSecondary tubulopathy is observed at:

A.    Phosphate-diabetes

B.    Tubulyar renal acidosis

C.    Disease de nToni-Debrae-Fanconi

D.    Hereditary nephritis

E.     * Galaktozemia

434.         nHereditary nephritis is inherited by:

A.    Recessive type, nconnected with the X chromosome

B.    Dominant type, connected nwith Y chromosome

C.    Recessive type, nconnected with Y chromosome

D.    Autosomal recessive type

E.     * Dominant type, nconnected with the X chromosome

435.         nThe basis of the pathogenesis of hereditary nephritis is:

A.    Inflammatory process iglomerulars

B.    Violation of nintravascular coagulation in glomerular capillaries

C.    Failure of proximal ntubules in reabsorbtion of bicarbonates

D.    Violation of the process nin tubular transport

E.     * Dysembriogenesis of nconnective tissue

436.         nMost distinctive feature of the initial period of hereditary nephritis nis:

A.    Leukocyturia

B.    Bacteriuria

C.    Oxaluria

D.    Uraturia

E.     * Microhematuria

437.         nWhat symptom is observed at initial period of hereditary nephritis?

A.    Hypertension

B.    Polyuria

C.    Oliguria

D.    Edema

E.     * Vascular hypotension

438.         nHereditary nephritis with deafness is called:

A.    Disease-de Toni- Debrae- nFanconi

B.    Berger’s disease

C.    Harnupa disease

D.    Leu syndrome

E.     * Alport syndrome

439.         nWhich extrarenal signs do point the possibility of hereditary nephritis nat presence of urinary syndrome?

A.    Edema of legs

B.    Skin edema

C.    Increased AP

D.    Haemorrhagic rash

E.     * Stigmes of ndyzembriogenesis

440.         nThe diagnostic criterion of hereditary nephritis does not include:

A.    Urinary Syndrome

B.    Deafness

C.    Dysmorphies

D.    Similar illness ifamily

E.     * Prior tonsillaties

441.         nFor urinary syndrome at hereditary nephritis is not typical:

A.    Microhematuria

B.    Poteinuria

C.    Macrohematuria

D.    Cylindruria

E.     * Bacteriuria

442.         nWhat is not characteristic for hereditary nephritis?

A.    Arterial hypotension

B.    Hematuria

C.    Proteinuria

D.    Dyzmorphies

E.     * Edema

443.         nThe main criterion of differential diagnose of hereditary nephritis is:

A.    Hematuria

B.    Proteinuria

C.    Previous renal colic nattacks

D.    Hypertension

E.     * Genetic anamnesis

444.         nAt hereditary nephritis connection of bacterial infection in childreleads to:

A.    Azotemia

B.    Cylindruria

C.    Hypoproteinemia

D.    Crystaluria

E.     * Piuria

445.         nThe main role in etiology of pielonephritis plays:

A.    Viruses

B.    Micoplasma

C.    Parasites

D.    Fungi

E.     * Bacteria

446.         nWhat from such drugs is not used at treatment of acute pyelonephritis?

A.    Antibiotics

B.    Uroseptics

C.    Antiinflamation drugs

D.    Diet

E.     * Hormones

447.         nWhat from such drugs is ineffective at treatment of pyelonephritis?

A.    Ampicillin

B.    Amicin

C.    Cefatoxin

D.    Loracin

E.     * Levomicetin

448.         nWhat from these signs do not present at pyelonephritis?

A.    Leucocytosis

B.    Leucocyturia

C.    Little proteinuria

D.    Bacteriuria

E.     * Hematuria

449.         nWhat sign gives information about the damaging of kidneys function?

A.    Hypoproteinemia

B.    Proteinuria

C.    Hyperlipidemia

D.    Hyperglycemia

E.     * Azotemia

450.         nIn oxalaturia it is necessary to eliminate from ration: 

A.    Potatoes

B.    Cabbage

C.    Pea

D.    Mushrooms

E.     * Sorrel

451.         nWhat diet it is necessary prescribe during acute pyelonephritis?

A.    1

B.    2

C.    3

D.    7

E.     * 5

452.         nThe main sign of pielonephritis is:

A.    n*Leukocyturia

B.    Hematuria

C.    Erythrocyturia

D.    Proteinuria

E.     nCylindruria

453.         nExcretory urographia allows to estimate:

A.    State of nephrons

B.    Functional state of nurinary tract

C.    State of urinary bladder

D.    Functional state of nurodinamics

E.     * Anatomical state of nurinary tract and urodinamics

454.         nAt what pathology ultrasound research is most informing?

A.    Hydronephrotic ntransformation

B.    Glomerulonephritis

C.    Pielonephritis

D.    Cystitis

E.     * Kidney tumor

455.         nWhat is predispositive factor of the development bladder-urether-pelvis nreflux in children?

A.    Intravesicular nobstruction

B.    Neurogenic dysfunctioof urine bladder

C.    Recanalization iviolation of urethers in  embriogenesis

D.    All transferred

E.     * Anatomic immaturity of nurether orifice

456.         nWhat is the etiologic factor of primary tubulopathy?

A.    Microbs

B.    Reflux

C.    Anatomic anomaly of nkidney

D.    Insufficiency of npodotcytes

E.     * Violation of membrane nsubstances inrenal tubules

457.         n?Weight deficit 10 – 20% is typical for:

A.    2nd degree malnutrition

B.    3rd degree of nmalnutrition

C.    eutrophia

D.    everything is wrong

E.     * 1st degree malnutritio

458.         nWeight deficit 21 – 30% is typical for:

A.    1st degree malnutrition

B.    3rd degree of nmalnutrition

C.    eutrophia

D.    everything is wrong

E.     * 2nd degree malnutritio

459.         nWhich of the following pathogenic mechanisms occur at chronic nobstructive pyelonephritis in hildren?

A.    Immune damage of the nglomerular capillaries of the kidneys

B.    Fatty degeneration of nthe epithelium of tubules

C.    Reflux

D.    All transferred

E.     * Malformations of the nurinary system, impeding outflow of urine

460.         nWhich of the following symptoms are typical for acute pyelonephritis ichildren?

A.    Proteinuria more than 3g n/ day

B.    Macrohematuria and nbacteriuria

C.    Microhematuria and nbacteriuria

D.    Microhematuria and nproteinuria

E.     * Pyuria and bacteriuria

461.         nWhat system of organism is damaged first of all at renal failure?

A.    Cardiovascular

B.    CNS

C.    Digestive

D.    Respiratory

E.     * All equally

462.         nWhat symptom is uncommon at cystitis in children?

A.    Fever

B.    Vomiting or diarrhea

C.    Crying, going off feeds nand generally unwell

D.    Appear to be in pain

E.     * Blood in urine

463.         nWhat is the main feature of urine infection in children?

A.    Leucocyturia

B.    Erythrocyturia

C.    Cylindruria

D.    All transferred

E.     * Bacteriuria

464.         nThe main task of therapy of acute cystitis in children should be ndirected to:

A.    The elimination of pain

B.    Normalization of nurination disorders

C.    Elimination of nmicrobial-inflammatory process in the bladder

D.    Liquidation of spasms

E.     * All transferred    

465.         nUrethritis almost always occurs in children:

A.    First year old

B.    Preschoolers

C.    14-17 years old

D.    Of all age groups

E.     * Before puberty

466.         nWhat is not characteristic for urethritis in children?

A.    Discomfort, stinging, or nburning when urinating

B.    Feeling an urgent and nfrequent need to urinate

C.    Itching in the genital narea 

D.    Pain in the genital area

E.     * Fever

467.         nWhat are the main causes of urethritis in children?

A.    Irritation by chemicals nin bubble bath

B.    Shampoo left on the ngenital area

C.    Soap left on the genital narea

D.    Urinary tract infections

E.     * All transferred

468.         nPyelonephritis is distinguishing from low urinary infection by:

A.    Fever more than 38,5°С

B.    Leukocytosis and nincreasing of ESR

C.    Increasing of nconcentration function of kidneys

D.    Proteinuria and naminoaciduria

E.     * All transferred

469.         nThe main symptom of chronic bronchitis is:

A.    Hyperthermia

B.    Wheezing

C.    Dyspnea

D.    Intoxication

E.     * Prolonged cough

470.         nWhat is the most important reason of all organs and systems dysfunctioin chronic lung disease in children?

A.    Surfactant deficiency

B.    Intoxication

C.    Hemodynamic disorders

D.    Immunity impairment

E.     * Hypoxia

471.         nWhat symptom is the sign of the continuous hypoxemia?

A.    Cyanosis of nasolabial ntriangle

B.    Acrocyanosis

C.    Wet cough in the morning n

D.    Total cyanosis

E.     * Deformation of the nterminal phalanges as “drumsticks” and “watch glasses”

472.         nWhat are the auscultation signs of chronic lung disease in children?

A.    A variety of wheezes

B.    A variety of dry and moist nrales

C.    Amphoric breathing

D.    Crepitation

E.     * Permanent local fine nrales

473.         nWhat X-ray changes are characteristic for chronic lung disease ichildren?

A.    Infiltration of lung ntissue in basal areas

B.    Lung tissue infiltratioon the tops of the lungs

C.    Availability of cavities

D.    Scanty lung pattern

E.     * Increased and ndeformation of the lung pattern

474.         nWhat is the leading component of complex treatment of chronic lung ndisease in children?

A.    Antibacterial therapy

B.    General stimulatiotherapy

C.    Therapeutic feeding

D.    Immune therapy

E.     * Restoration of nbronchial drainage function

475.         nFinal diagnose of pulmonary hypoplasia is based on:

A.    Bronchoscopy

B.    X-ray examination

C.    US observation of lungs

D.    CT-scan

E.     * Bronchography

476.         nWhat is NOT typical for lung agenesia?

A.    Cyanosis

B.    The heart is shifted ntowards the lesion

C.    On the lesion side nthorax is flattened, and the healthy half is convex

D.    Nail n”drumsticks” on phalanges

E.     * On the lesion side nthorax is convex, and the healthy half is flattened

477.         nThe incidence of lung hypoplasia is higher in:

A.    Big birth weight infants

B.    Low birth weight infants

C.    Newborns after npathological pregnancy

D.    Newborns after npathological delivery

E.     * Preterm infants

478.         nPulmonary hypoplasia occurs as a result of:

A.    Oligohydramnios

B.    Potter’s syndrome

C.    Abnormalities of the nthoracic cage

D.    Diaphragmatic hernia

E.     * All mentioned above

479.         nWhat does predominate in the clinical presentation of cystic adenomatous nmalformation?

A.    Hypoxia

B.    Respiratory acidosis

C.    Arrhythmic respiration

D.    Respiratory failure

E.     * Disturbance of the nbronchial drainage function

480.         nWhat examinations are the most important in cystic adenomatous nmalformation?

A.    Chest X-ray and CT-scan

B.    Bronchoscopy and chest nX-ray

C.    Chest X-ray and nbronchography

D.    Bronchoscopy and nbronchography

E.     * CT-scan and nbronchography

481.         nWhat complication may occur at cystic adenomatous malformation?

A.    Infection

B.    Hemorrhage

C.    Acute respiratory nfailure

D.    Neoplastic ntransformation

E.     * All mentioned above

482.         nChoose the wrong statement about cystic adenomatous malformation?

A.    Cysts may be filled with nair or fluid

B.    Cysts arise from aabnormal budding of the ventral foregut

C.    Such complications as ninfection, hemorrhage, and malignancy can occur

D.    Dysphagia and epigastric ndiscomfort can occur

E.     * Cysts caot be nasymptomatic

483.         nWhat is not characteristic for cystic adenomatous malformation?

A.    Dullness of percussiosounds

B.    Respiratory failure

C.    Auscultation with the nweakening of breath

D.    Wheezing of various nsizes

E.     * Dry rales

484.         nWhat is pulmonary sequestration?

A.    Increasing of the number nof lobes

B.    Increasing of the mass nof lobes

C.    Histological changes of nlung tissue

D.    Intralobar malformation

E.     * Benign mass of nnon-functioning lung tissue

485.         nWhat is the predominant localization of pulmonary sequestration?

A.    Left upper lobe

B.    Right lower lobe

C.    Right upper lobe

D.    Right middle lobe

E.     * Left lower lobe

486.         nWhat is NOT typical for pulmonary sequestration?

A.    Chronic cough

B.    Recurrent pneumonias

C.    Poor exercise resistance

D.    Congestive cardiac nfailure

E.     * Pain in the chest

487.         nWhat is the reason of chronic cough in children with pulmonary nsequestration?

A.    Compression of the lung ntissue

B.    Decreased mucociliary nclearance

C.    Disturbance of the ndrainage function

D.    All mentioned above

E.     * Recurrent respiratory ntract infections

488.         nChoose the gastrointestinal sign of pulmonary sequestration?

A.    Vomiting

B.    Failure to thrive

C.    Abdominal pain

D.    Poor appetite

E.     * All mentioned above

489.         nWhat is the main distinguishing feature of sequestration of the lung?

A.    Progressive respiratory nfailure

B.    Chronic cough

C.    Recurrent respiratory ntract infections

D.    Small bubbling (moist) nrales

E.     * Additional large vessel

490.         nThe main diagnostic value at sequestration of the lung has:

A.    Bronchoscopy

B.    X-ray

C.    Bronchography

D.    CT

E.     * Angiography

491.         nChoose the wrong statement about surgical treatment at sequestration of nthe lung:

A.    Can be recommended for nasymptomatic patients

B.    Is obligatory after ndiagnostics

C.    Is recommended icompression of normal lung mass

D.    It is preventive measure n

E.     * Should be performed nonly in patients with recurrent infections

492.         nWhat is the main distinguishing clinical feature of Mounier-Kuhsyndrome tracheobronchomegaly)?

A.    Attacks of spasmodic ncough

B.    Dry unproductive cough

C.    Wet unproductive cough

D.    Dry cough

E.     * Brassy paroxismal cough n

493.         nWhat is the main distinguishing clinical feature of ntracheobronchomegaly?

A.    Spasmodic cough

B.    Dry unproductive cough

C.    Wet unproductive cough

D.    Dry productive cough

E.     * Brassy paroxismal cough n

494.         nWhat auscultation data are characteristic for tracheobronchomegaly?

A.    Fine moist rales

B.    Crepitation

C.    Dry rales

D.    All mentioned above

E.     * Variety of wheezing

495.         nChoose the best method of tracheobronchomegaly diagnostics?

A.    Chest x-ray

B.    Chest ultrasound

C.    Chest CT-scan

D.    Angiography

E.     * Bronchoscopy

496.         nChoose the synonym of the Williams– Campbell syndrome:

A.    Tracheobronchomegaly

B.    Sclerotic changes in the nperibronchial tissues

C.    Deformation of trachea nand bronchi

D.    Expansion of the lumeof the trachea and main bronchi

E.     * Congenital generalized nbronchiectasis

497.         nWhat is the reason of Williams– Campbell syndrome?

A.    Bronchial muscular ndefect

B.    Mucociliary clearance ninsufficiency

C.    Atrophy of the nlongitudinal elastic fibres

D.    Disturbance of the nbronchial drainage function

E.     * Bronchial cartilage ndefect

498.         nWhat is the typical localization of pathological process at Williams– nCampbell syndrome?

A.    Upper lobes of lungs

B.    Middle lobe of right nlung

C.    Mediastinum

D.    Trachea

E.     * Low lobes of lungs

499.         nChoose RIGHT statement about Williams– Campbell syndrome.

A.    The clinical signs are ntypical for bronchial obstruction

B.    Bronchopulmonary infectiois frequent symptom

C.    The pathological process nbecomes chronic always

D.    Is typical chest ndeformation

E.     * All is correct

500.         nChoose WRONG statement about Williams– Campbell syndrome.

A.    The clinical signs are ntypical for bronchial obstruction

B.    Bronchopulmonary infectiois frequent symptom

C.    The pathological process nbecomes chronic always

D.    Is typical chest ndeformation

E.     * All is correct

501.         nChoose the best method of Williams– Campbell syndrome diagnostics?

A.    Chest x-ray

B.    Chest ultrasound

C.    CT-scan

D.    Angiography

E.     * Bronchography

502.         nChoose the WRONG statement about congenital lobar emphysema:

A.    Respiratory ninsufficiency can develop immediately after birth

B.    Surgical treatment is nnecessary

C.    Can be diagnosed with nthe help of chest x-ray

D.    Is typical absence or nhypoplasia of bronchi cartilages at the part of lung

E.     * There is abundant nanomaly

503.         nCyanosis, shortness of breath, coughing, choking during breastfeeding is nthe most typical for:

A.    Atresia of the esophagus

B.    Tracheobronchomegalia

C.    Atonia of esophagus

D.    Cogenital achalasia of nesophagus

E.     * Tracheoesophageal and nbronchoesophageal fistulas

504.         nWhat type of inheritance is characteristic for Kartagener syndrome?

A.    Autosomal dominant

B.    X-linked dominant

C.    X-linked recessive

D.    Y-linked

E.     * Autosomal recessive

505.         nHamman-Rich syndrome is characterized by:

A.    Bronchial agenesia

B.    Tracheobronchomegalia

C.    Bronchial aplasia

D.    All is correct

E.     * Rapidly progressive ndiffuse pulmonary fibrosis

506.         nWhat main treatment is used at Hamman-Rich syndrome?

A.    Antibiotics

B.    Bronchodilatators

C.    Expectorants

D.    Surgical

E.     * Corticosteroids

507.         nWhat changes in biochemical blood analysis are typical for the nidiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis:

A.    Hypoproteinemia and nhypobilirubinemia

B.    Increased level of ndirect bilirubin and transaminases

C.    Decreased level of serum niron and hypoproteinemia

D.    Increased level of serum niron and hypobilirubinemia

E.     * Decreased level of nserum iron and increased level of indirect bilirubin

508.         nTreatment of idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis includes:

A.    Oxygen therapy

B.    Glucocorticoids

C.    Cytostatics

D.    Deferoxamine

E.     * All mentioned above

509.         nWhat type of inheritance is characteristic for primary pulmonary nhypertension?

A.    Autosomal recessive

B.    Y-linked

C.    X-linked recessive

D.    X-linked dominant

E.     * Autosomal dominant

510.         nWhat type of inheritance is characteristic for cystic fibrosis?

A.    Autosomal dominant

B.    Y-linked

C.    X-linked recessive

D.    X-linked dominant

E.     * Autosomal recessive

511.         nWhat form of cystic fibrosis is typical only for newborns?

A.    Pulmonary

B.    Enteric

C.    Mixed 

D.    Edematous-anemic

E.     * Meconium ileus

512.         nWhat medicines are the basic in the cystic fibrosis treatment?

A.    Antibiotics

B.    Mycolitics

C.    Cytostatics

D.    Glucocorticoids

E.     * Enzymes

513.         nThe criterion of acute glomerulonephritis  transition in a chronic form is saving of nclinical-laboratory signs longer than:

A.    6 months

B.    3 months

C.    6 weeks

D.    9 months

E.     * 1 year

514.         nWeight deficiency more than 30% is typical for:

A.    1st degree malnutrition

B.    2nd degree malnutrition

C.    eutrophia

D.    everything is wrong

E.     * 3rd degree of nmalnutrition

515.         nParatrofia is manifested by:

A.    decreased body weight nproportionally to the length

B.    increased body weight istunted growth

C.    decreased body weight nwith an accelerated growth

D.    everything is correct

E.     * increased body weight nproportionally to the length

516.         nParatrofia is manifested by:

A.    reduction of nsubcutaneous fat

B.    reduced skin elasticity

C.    increased soft tissues nturgor 

D.    everything is correct

E.     * increased subcutaneous nfat

517.         nIn the biochemical analysis of blood ща сhild with nmalnutrition will be:

A.    hyperglycemia

B.    hypercalcemia

C.    hyperalbuminemia

D.    everything is correct

E.     * hypoproteinemia

518.         nIn coprogram of child with malnutrition will be detected signs of:

A.    hyperenzymopathy

B.    inflammation

C.    worms invasion

D.    erythrocytes

E.     * hypoenzymopathy

519.         nThe main cause of malnutrition

A.    enzymopathy

B.    pneumonia

C.    rickets

D.    dysbacteriosis

E.     * inadequate dietary nintake

520.         nCommon form of malnutrition is:

A.    spasmophylia

B.    thrombocytopenia

C.    hypoplastic anemia

D.    everything is correct

E.     * iron deficiency

521.         nBody temperature in children with severe malnutrition is:

A.    increased

B.    normal

C.    subfebrile

D.    hectic

E.     * decreased

522.         nFor severe malnutrition is typical:

A.    weight-length ncoefficient is 60

B.    trophy index is 0

C.    irritability of the nchild

D.    weight loss is 10-20%

E.     * “Old man” nface

523.         nTherapeutic feeding for children with malnutrition:

A.    diet according to the nage

B.    diet, taking into naccount the concomitant disease

C.    diet with adapted nformulas

D.    diet with maladapted nformulas

E.     * rejuvenation food

524.         nHow many days does the period of tolerance to food last in mild nmalnutrition?

A.    1 – 5 days

B.    7 days

C.    10 days

D.    everything is correct

E.     * 1 – 3 days

525.         nWhy is not good to give full food volume for the child with nmalnutrition?

A.    Because of nhyperenzymopathy

B.    Because of dyspancreatysm n

C.    Because of poor appetite n

D.    everything is wrong

E.     * Because of nhypoenzymopathy

526.         nName principles of nutrition in malnutrition:

A.    diet, taking into naccount the concomitant disease and cause of malnutrition

B.    diet, taking into naccount children’s age and cause of malnutrition

C.    diet using adopted nformulas and age of the child

D.    maximum feeding

E.     * tolerance to food nestablishment and food rejuvenation

527.         nWhat does the principle of two-phase feeding mean?

A.    establishment of ntolerance to food and the maximum feeding

B.    establishment of ntolerance to food and minimum feeding

C.    establishment of ntolerance to food and breastfeeding

D.    maximum feeding

E.     * establishment of ntolerance to food and optimal feeding

528.         nUsing of pancreatic enzymes is appropriate:

A.    1 hour before the meal

B.    after the meal

C.    1 hour after the meal

D.    before eating

E.     * during the meal

529.         nChoose the Drug for replacement therapy in case of malnutrition:

A.    pentoxyl

B.    apylac

C.    thiotriazoline

D.    glucose

E.     * pancreatin

530.         nName peculiarities of the diet in paratrophia:

A.    protein restriction

B.    restriction of vitamins

C.    increase in fat

D.    everything is wrong

E.     * reduce of carbohydrate

531.         nThe aim of probiotics therapy:

A.    for correcting the oral ncavity microflora

B.    for correcting the nbronchial microflora

C.    to fight infection

D.    everything is correct

E.     * for correcting the nintestinal microflora 

532.         nChoose bacterial drugs (probiotics):

A.    pancreatin

B.    clarithromycin

C.    penthoxyl

D.    everything is correct

E.     * linex

533.         nThe main clinical syndromes of diarrhea are:

A.    dyspepsia, dehydration, nbleeding

B.    dyspepsia, endotoxemia, nportal hypertension

C.    constipation, nendotoxemia, dehydration

D.    everything is correct

E.     * dyspepsia, dehydration, nendotoxemia

534.         nDyspeptic syndrome includes:

A.    constipation, nflatulence, fatigue

B.    fever, vomiting, njaundice

C.    vomiting, constipation, njaundice

D.    diarrhea, fever, njaundice

E.     * diarrhea, flatulence, nvomiting

535.         nWhich symptoms belongs to the clinical syndromes of enzymopathy?

A.    hepatosplenomegaly

B.    swelling of the brain

C.    renal failure

D.    everything is correct

E.     * dehydration

536.         nChoose drug, which is used for rehydration:

A.    lypofundin

B.    jelatynol

C.    alvezin

D.    rheopolyglucine

E.     * 5% glucose solution

537.         nChoose drug, which is used for detoxication

A.    alvezin

B.    acesol

C.    lypofundin

D.    potassium chloride

E.     * rheosorbilact

538.         nIt is advisable to give When diarrhea :

A.    glucocorticoids

B.    membrane stabilizatiomedicine

C.    vitamins

D.    antibiotics

E.     * enterosorbents

539.         nCiprofloxacin belongs to:

A.    macrolides

B.    cephalosporins

C.    aminoglycosides

D.    penicillins

E.     * fluoroquinolones

540.         nThe daily dose of ciprofloxacin to the child is:

A.    5 – 10 mg / kg

B.    15 – 20 mg / kg

C.    20 – 25 mg / kg

D.    30 – 40 mg / kg

E.     * 10 – 15 mg / kg

541.         nThe daily dose of cephalosporin to the child is:

A.    100 – 150 mg / kg

B.    150 – 200 mg / kg

C.    200 – 250 mg / kg

D.    10 – 30 mg / kg

E.     * 50 – 100 mg / kg

542.         nDehydration syndrome includes:

A.    polyuria

B.    edema

C.    bulging large fontanel

D.    everything is correct

E.     * loss of body weight

543.         nHypertonic dehydration is characterized by:

A.    normal body temperature

B.    hypothermia

C.    sleepiness

D.    everything is correct

E.     * hyperthermia

544.         nHypertonic dehydration is characterized by:

A.    sodium levels are normal n

B.    chloropenia

C.    reduced hematocrit

D.    decreased urine ndensity 

E.     * increased urine ndensity 

545.         nChoose indications for the antibiotic therapy in case of diarrhea:

A.    dyspnea

B.    convulsions

C.    hyperthermia

D.    vomiting

E.     * pathological admixtures nin feces

546.         nHow many fluid does healthy infant need per day?

A.    60 – 100 ml/kg

B.    110 – 120 ml/kg

C.    100 – 110 ml/kg

D.    120-130 ml/kg

E.     * 130 – 150 ml/kg

547.         nHow many fluid does infant with severe dehydratioeed per day? 

A.    150 – 160 ml

B.    170 – 180 ml

C.    100 – 120 ml

D.    50 – 100 ml

E.     * 200 – 220 ml

548.         nWhat ratio of salt and water solutions for infant with hypotonic ndehydration should be?

A.    2: 1

B.    3: 1

C.    4: 1

D.    1: 2

E.     * 1: 1

549.         nName the most common cause of acute bronchitis

A.    fungi

B.    bacteria

C.    helminth

D.    enzymopathy

E.     * viruses

550.         nRS-infection often causes bronchiolitis in:

A.    preschoolers

B.    toddlers

C.    school age children

D.    teens

E.     * infants

551.         nHelminth infection is often the cause of bronchitis in:

A.    infants

B.    toddlers

C.    adolescents

D.    school age children

E.     * preschoolers

552.         nThe main symptoms of acute bronchitis is:

A.    sore throat

B.    running nose

C.    dyspnea

D.    fever

E.     * cough

553.         nThe typical auscultatory sing of acute bronchitis is:

A.    weakened vesicular nbreathing

B.    puerile breathing

C.    local whezing  

D.    local rales

E.     * harsh breathing

554.         nIn what age group of children bronchitis is more often?

A.    infants

B.    newborns

C.    toddlers

D.    teens 

E.     * preschoolers

555.         nA typical percussion sign of acute bronchitis is:

A.    shortening of pulmonary nsound in the upper parts of the lungs

B.    shortening of pulmonary nsound in the lower parts of the lungs

C.    shortening of the lung nsound all over the lungs

D.    local tympanic sound

E.     * clear lung sound

556.         nWhat degree of respiratory failure severity is the most often in acute nbronchitis?

A.    1st degree

B.    2nd degree

C.    3rd degree

D.    everything is correct

E.     * 0 degree

557.         nRadiological signs of acute bronchitis are:

A.    symmetrical attenuatioof lung pattern

B.    symmetrical namplification pattern of lung with small focal hilar infiltration

C.    symmetrical namplification pattern of lung in hilar and lowermedial zones

D.    symmetrical attenuatioof bases of lungs

E.     * symmetrical namplification of lung pattern

558.         nTypical changes in Common blood test of patients with acute bronchitis:

A.    significant leucopenia

B.    moderate nleucocytosis 

C.    significant nleucocytosis, accelerated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

D.    anemia

E.     * leucopenia, nlymphocytosis

559.         nEtiotropic therapy of viral infection in the acute bronchitis is more neffective when it was given:

A.    no effective

B.    for 5-7 days

C.    throughout the disease

D.    after 7th day  of disease

E.     * in the first 2 days of nillness

560.         nThe effectiveness of expectorants in acute bronchitis depends on:

A.    appointment of antiviral ndrugs

B.    appointment of nantihistamines

C.    appointment of vitamins

D.    everything is correct

E.     * sufficient drinking

561.         nTypically, recurrent bronchitis exacerbation is absent in:

A.    spring

B.    winter

C.    autumn

D.    everything is correct

E.     * summer

562.         nWhat is a dominating symptom In clinical exacerbation of recurrent nbronchitis?

A.    intoxication

B.    dyspnea

C.    running nose

D.    everything is correct

E.     * cough

563.         nCough with recurrent bronchitis exacerbation is more severe:

A.    at night

B.    by the day

C.    in the evening

D.    everything is correct

E.     * in the morning

564.         nPercussion in patients with recurrent bronchitis exacerbation reveals:

A.    clear lung sound

B.    shortening of sound ithe lower parts

C.    clear sound with a short nbandbox between the scapulas

D.    everything is correct

E.     * bandbox sound

565.         nIn acute obstructive bronchitis, auscultation reveals:

A.    weakened breathing

B.    only prolonged nexpiration

C.    small bubbling rales ndiffusely

D.    small bubbling rales nlocally

E.     * dry rales, medium nbubbling rales on inspiration, prolonged expiration

566.         nBronchoscopy in recurrent bronchitis exacerbation reveals:

A.    diffuse changes in the nform of mucosal atrophy

B.    diffuse changes in the nform of mucosal hyperemia

C.    local changes of nbronchial mucosa

D.    everything is correct

E.     * diffuse changes in the nform of mucosal hyperemia, thickening of the bronchial walls and mucous nsecretion

567.         nBronchoscopy in remission of recurrent bronchitis reveals:

A.    hyperemia of the nbronchial mucosa

B.    atrophy of the bronchial nmucosa

C.    normal bronchial mucosa

D.    everything is correct

E.     * granulation obronchial mucosa

568.         nThe main treatment of recurrent bronchitis is:

A.    toxicosis liquidation

B.    antiviral treatment

C.    dehydration liquidation

D.    everything is correct

E.     * decrease of bronchial nobstruction

569.         nIn the treatment of acute recurrent bronchitis postural drainage is nbetter to use:

A.    after breakfast

B.    in the afternoon

C.    at bedtime

D.    everything is wrong

E.     * after awakening

570.         nDuration of antibiotic therapy in patients with recurrent bronchitis nexacerbation is:

A.    14 days

B.    21 days

C.    28 days

D.    everything is correct

E.     * 7 days

571.         nRecurrent bronchitis, which lasts more than 5 years, is a harbinger of:

A.    asthma

B.    scoliosis

C.    polyhypovitaminosis

D.    everything is wrong

E.     * chronic bronchitis

572.         nThe main symptom of chronic bronchitis is:

A.    running nose

B.    fever

C.    dyspnea

D.    everything is correct

E.     * persistent cough

573.         nName the criteria for chronic bronchitis:

A.    stable localized nwheezing in the lungs

B.    wet cough

C.    recurrent exacerbations

D.    everything is correct

E.     * diffuse non-permanent nrales in the lungs

574.         nThe most typical symptom of bronchiectasis is:

A.    inspiratory dyspnea

B.    expiratory dyspnea

C.    dry cough nadsadisty

D.    everything is correct

E.     * cough

575.         nThe final diagnosis of bronchiectasis needs:

A.    spirography

B.    bronchoscopy

C.    X-ray of the chest

D.    everything is wrong

E.     * bronchography

576.         nIn chronic bronchitis are affected:

A.    bronchi

B.    lung parenchyma

C.    alveoli

D.    everything is wrong

E.     * all the structures of nthe bronchopulmonary system

577.         nThe thorax in children with chronic bronchitis is:

A.    cylinder

B.    conical

C.    unmodified

D.    everything is correct

E.     * asymmetric

578.         nWhich of the symptoms indicate prolonged hypoxemia?

A.    productive cough, more nin the morning

B.    hyperhidrosis

C.    perynasal cyanosis

D.    everything is wrong

E.     * clubbing fingers

579.         nWhich of the auscultatory signs indicate chronic respiratory pathology?

A.    variety of wheezing and nmoist rales

B.    local small bubbling nrales

C.    “amphora” nbreath

D.    everything is correct

E.     * constant variety of nrales

580.         nSecondary chronic pneumonia develops:

A.    in the presence of  bronchial “foreign body”

B.    1 month after acute npneumonia

C.    on the basis of reduced nimmunity

D.    everything is correct

E.     * on the background of nsystemic and inherited pulmonary diseases  n

581.         nWhat is the lead point for the integrated treatment of chronic nbronchopulmonary pathology in children?

A.    antibacterial therapy

B.    general-stimulatiotherapy

C.    nutritional care

D.    everything is correct