Anatomy of musculo-skeletal system

Anatomy of musculo-skeletal system

 

Text tests questions

1. Between what vertebra may a needle be inserted during a spinal tap?

1. * L4-L5

2. L2-L3

3. L1-L2

4. L3-L4

5. L12-L1

2. How many cervical vertebrae are there?

1. * 7

2. 5

3. 8

4. 10

5. 12

2. How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

1. * 4-5

2. 3

3. 8

4. 10

5. 12

3. How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

1. * 5

2. 3

3. 8

4. 10

5. 12

4. How many sacral vertebrae are there?

1. * 5

2. 3

3. 8

4. 10

5. 12

5. How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

1. * 12

2. 5

3. 7

4. 8

5. 10

6. Movement of the body part away from the main axis of the body, or away from the midsagittal plane, is the definition of:

1. * Abduction

2. Flexion

3. Extension

4. Circumduction

5. Adduction

7. On the CT picture doctor can indicate position of the end of spinal cord on adults in the…

1. th 12 vertebrae

2. * L1 – L2vertebrae

3. S1 vertebrae

4. S2 vertebrae

5. th11 vertebrae

8. On the CT picture doctor can indicate position of the terminal ventricle in the…

1. * midbrain

2. brain steam

3. spinal cord

4. diencephalon

5. mind brain

9. The anterior part of the vertebra is:

1. * Body

2. Arcus

3. Foramen

4. Superior incisura

5. Inferior incisura

10. The biggest part of the vertebra is:

1. * Body

2. Arcus

3. Foramen

4. Superior incisura

5. Inferior incisura

11. The spinal cord located in:

1. * Vertebral canal

2. Sacral canal

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Superior incisura

5. Inferior incisura

12. The spinal nerves pass through:

1. * Intervertebral foramen

2. Sacral canal

3. Vertebral canal

4. Superior incisura

5. Inferior incisura

13. What functions of the central nervous system examine the doctor neuropathologist?

1. ending out messages to muscles

2. ending out messages to glands and organs

3. eceiving,processing and interpreting incoming information

4. ll of the above

5. one of the above

14. What part of vertebra carries the nutrition foramina?

1. * Vertebral body

2. Vertebral arcus

3. Vertebral canal

4. Superior incisura

5. Inferior incisura

15. What part of vertebra carries the processes?

1. * Vertebral arcus

2. Vertebral body

3. Vertebral canal

4. Superior incisura

5. Inferior incisura

16. Which bones belong to axial skeleton?

1. * Sternum

2. Scapula

3. Clavicle

4. Hip bone

5. Femur

17. Which bones belong to axial skeleton?

1. * Rib

2. Scapula

3. Clavicle

4. Hip bone

5. Femur

18. Which bones belong to axial skeleton?

1. * Scapula

2. Clavicle

3. Hip bone

4. Vertebra

5. Femur

19. Which bones belong to axial skeleton?

1. * Temporal

2. Scapula

3. Clavicle

4. Hip bone

5. Femur

20. Which bones belong to axial skeleton?

1. * Mandible

2. Scapula

3. Clavicle

4. Hip bone

5. Femur

21. Which bones belong to axial skeleton?

1. * Frontal

2. Scapula

3. Clavicle

4. Hip bone

5. Femur

22. Which peculiarities of 11-th thoracic vertebrae?

1. * Costal facets for eleventh ribs

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Costal facets for eleventh and twelfth ribs

23. Which peculiarities of 12-th thoracic vertebrae?

1. * Costal facets for twelfth ribs

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Costal facets for eleventh and twelfth ribs

24. Which peculiarities of 1st thoracic vertebrae?

1. * Costal facets for first and second ribs

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Costal facets for first ribs

25. Which peculiarities of 2nd thoracic vertebrae?

1. * Costal facets for second and third ribs

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Costal facets for first and second ribs

26. Which peculiarities of 7th cervical vertebrae?

1. * Long spinous process

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Costal facet

5. Superior incisura

27. Which peculiarities of cervical vertebrae?

1. * Transversal foramen

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Costal facet

5. Superior incisura

28. Which peculiarities of cervical vertebrae?

1. * Carotid tubercle

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Costal facet

5. Superior incisura

29. Which peculiarities of cervical vertebrae?

1. * Prominent vertebra

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Costal facet

5. Superior incisura

30. Which peculiarities of first cervical vertebra?

1. * Articular facets

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Costal facet

5. Superior and inferior incisura

31. Which peculiarities of first cervical vertebra?

1. * Groove of vertebral artery

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Costal facet

5. Superior and inferior incisura

32. Which peculiarities of first cervical vertebra?

1. * Absence of body

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Costal facet

5. Superior and inferior incisura

33. Which peculiarities of first cervical vertebra?

1. * Absence of spinous process

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Costal facet

5. Superior and inferior incisura

34. Which peculiarities of first cervical vertebra?

1. * Absence of body

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Costal facet

5. Superior incisura

35. Which peculiarities of first cervical vertebra?

1. * Anterior and posterior arches

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Costal facet

5. Superior and inferior incisura

36. Which peculiarities of first cervical vertebra?

1. * Anterior and posterior tubercles

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Costal facet

5. Superior and inferior incisura

37. Which peculiarities of lumbar vertebrae?

1. * Mammilary process

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Costal facets

38. Which peculiarities of lumbar vertebrae?

1. * Accessory process

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Costal facets

39. Which peculiarities of lumbar vertebrae?

1. * Big spinous process

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Costal facets

40. Which peculiarities of lumbar vertebrae?

1. * Big body

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Costal facets

41. Which peculiarities of sacral bone?

1. * Superior articular process

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Big corpus

42. Which peculiarities of sacral bone?

1. * Auricular surface

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Big corpus

43. Which peculiarities of sacral bone?

1. * Canal through the bone

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Big corpus

44. Which peculiarities of sacral bone?

1. * Median crest

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Big corpus

45. Which peculiarities of sacral bone?

1. * Lateral crest

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Big corpus

46. Which peculiarities of sacral bone?

1. * Ventral foramina

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Big corpus

47. Which peculiarities of sacral bone?

1. * Dorsal foramina

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Big corpus

48. Which peculiarities of sacral bone?

1. * Transverse lines

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Big corpus

49. Which peculiarities of sacral bone?

1. * Tuberosity

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Big corpus

50. Which peculiarities of sacral bone?

1. * Horns in lower part

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Big corpus

51. Which peculiarities of sacral bone?

1. * Horns in upper part

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Long spinous process

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Big corpus

52. Which peculiarities of second cervical vertebra?

1. * Presence of dens

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Intervertebral foramen

4. Costal facet

5. Superior and inferior incisura

53. Which peculiarities of thoracic vertebrae?

1. * Costal facet on transversprocess

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Transversal foramen

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Superior incisura

54. Which peculiarities of thoracic vertebrae?

1. * Costal facet

2. Vertebral foramen

3. Transversal foramen

4. Intervertebral foramen

5. Superior incisura

55. Which process carries foramen

1. * Costotransversal

2. Spinous

3. Articular

4. Mammilary

5. Transverse

56. Which process located in lumbar vertebrae

1. * Costotransversal

2. Spinous

3. Articular

4. Mammilary

5. Transverse

57. Which process located in lumbar vertebrae

1. * Accessory

2. Spinous

3. Articular

4. Transverse

5. Costotransversal

58. Which process located in sagittal plane

1. * Spinous

2. Superior articular

3. Inferior articular

4. Transverse

5. Costotransversal

59. Which process take place in formation of joints between vertebrae?

1. * Articular

2. Spinous

3. Mammilary

4. Transverse

5. Costotransversal

60. Which process take place in formation of joints with ribs?

1. * Transverse

2. Spinous

3. Articular

4. Mammilary

5. Costotransversal

61. You see CT picture indicate position of filum terminale in the…

1. Co1-Co1

2. S1-S1

3. * L1-L2

4. Th2-L2

5. S2-Co2

62. You see CT picture indicate position of lumbosacral enlargement in the…

1. Th11-L11vertebrae

2. S-5 vertebrae

3. Th-1 vertebrae

4. L-2 vertebrae

5. Th11 vertebrae

63. You see CT picture what you can indicate in central canal of vertebre?

1. midbrain

2. brain steam

3. * spinal cord

4. diencephalon

5. mind brain

64. The lesser tubercle is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Humerus

2. Radius

3. Ulna

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

65. The articular circumference is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Radius

2. Ulna

3. Humerus

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

66. The condyle of the humerus is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Humerus

2. Radius

3. Ulna

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

67. The coronoid fossa is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Humerus

2. Radius

3. Ulna

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

68. The coronoid process is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Radius

2. Ulna

3. Humerus

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

69. The crest of the great tubercle is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Humerus

2. Radius

3. Ulna

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

70. The deltoid tuberosity is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Humerus

2. Radius

3. Ulna

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

71. The ethmoid incisura is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Frontal bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

72. The external crest is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Occipital bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

73. The foramen magnum located on

1. * Occipital bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

74. The frontal angle is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Parietal bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Frontal bone

5. Temporal bone

75. The greater tubercle is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Humerus

2. Radius

3. Ulna

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

76. The groove for ulnar nerve is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Radius

2. Ulna

3. Humerus

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

77. The groove of transverse sinus located on

1. * Occipital bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

78. The hypoglossal canal located on

1. * Occipital bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

79. The incisura jugularis is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Occipital bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

80. The internal crest is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Occipital bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

81. The intertubercular sulcus is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Humerus

2. Radius

3. Ulna

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

82. The lateral epicondyles is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Humerus

2. Radius

3. Ulna

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

83. The lateral supracondylar crest is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Radius

2. Ulna

3. Humerus

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

84. The linea nuchalis inferior is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Occipital bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

85. The linea nuchalis superior is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Occipital bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Palatine bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

86. The linea nuchalis suprema is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Occipital bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

87. The linea nuchalis suprema is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Occipital bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

88. The lower squamous margin is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Parietal bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Frontal bone

5. Temporal bone

89. The medial epicondyles is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Radius

2. Ulna

3. Humerus

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

90. The medial supracondylar crest is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Radius

2. Ulna

3. Humerus

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

91. The olecranon fossa is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Humerus

2. Radius

3. Ulna

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

92. The olecranon is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Radius

2. Ulna

3. Humerus

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

93. The processus jugularis is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Sphenoid bone

2. Occipital bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

94. The radial fossa is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Humerus

2. Radius

3. Ulna

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

95. The radial groove is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Humerus

2. Radius

3. Ulna

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

96. The radial tuberosity is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Radius

2. Ulna

3. Humerus

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

97. The radial tuberosity is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Radius

2. Ulna

3. Humerus

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

98. The sagittal margin is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Parietal bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Frontal bone

5. Temporal bone

99. The sinus is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Frontal bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

100. The sinus is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Sphenoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

101. The styloid process is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Radius

2. Ulna

3. Humerus

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

102. The sulci arteriosi are a structural features of which bone?

1. * Parietal bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Frontal bone

5. Temporal bone

103. The superior temporal line is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Parietal bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Frontal bone

5. Temporal bone

104. The supraorbital incisura is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Frontal bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

105. The surgical neck is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Humerus

2. Radius

3. Ulna

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

106. The trochlear fossa is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Frontal bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

107. The trochlear notch is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Radius

2. Ulna

3. Humerus

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

108. The ulnar notch is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Radius

2. Ulna

3. Humerus

4. Carpal bones

5. Metacarpal bones

109. Which bone has alae of crista galli as its structural feature?

1. * Ethmoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Sphenoid bone

5. Parietal bone

110. Which bone has alae of crista galli as its structural feature?

1. * Ethmoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Sphenoid bone

5. Parietal bone

111. Which bone has bulla as its structural feature?

1. * Ethmoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Sphenoid bone

5. Parietal bone

112. Which bone has cells as its structural feature?

1. * Ethmoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Parietal bone

113. Which bone has cribriform plate as its structural feature?

1. * Ethmoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Sphenoid bone

5. Parietal bone

114. Which bone has crystal gall as its structural feature?

1. * Ethmoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Sphenoid bone

5. Parietal bone

115. Which bone has foramen ovale as its structural feature?

1. * Sphenoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Ethmoid bone

5. Parietal bone

116. Which bone has foramen rotundum as its structural feature?

1. * Sphenoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Ethmoid bone

5. Parietal bone

117. Which bone has foramen spinosum as its structural feature?

1. * Sphenoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Ethmoid bone

5. Parietal bone

118. Which bone has greater wings as its structural feature?

1. * Sphenoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Ethmoid bone

5. Parietal bone

119. Which bone has labyrinths as its structural feature?

1. * Ethmoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Sphenoid bone

5. Parietal bone

120. Which bone has lesser wings as its structural feature?

1. * Sphenoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Ethmoid bone

5. Parietal bone

121. Which bone has middle nasal concha as its structural feature?

1. * Ethmoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Sphenoid bone

5. Parietal bone

122. Which bone has optic canal as its structural feature?

1. * Sphenoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Ethmoid bone

5. Parietal bone

123. Which bone has perpendicular plate as its structural feature?

1. * Ethmoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Sphenoid bone

5. Parietal bone

124. Which bone has pterygoid canal as its structural feature?

1. * Sphenoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Ethmoid bone

5. Parietal bone

125. Which bone has pterygoid process as its structural feature?

1. * Sphenoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Ethmoid bone

5. Parietal bone

126. Which bone has superior nasal concha as its structural feature?

1. * Ethmoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Sphenoid bone

5. Parietal bone

127. Which bone has suprema nasal concha as its structural feature?

1. * Ethmoid bone

2. Nasal bone

3. Occipital bone

4. Sphenoid bone

5. Parietal bone

128. Which part belongs to sternum?

1. * corpus

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

129. Which part belongs to sternum?

1. * neck

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

130. Which peculiarity of the clavicle?

1. * conoid tubercle

2. acromion

3. spine

4. glenoid cavity

5. fossa supraspinata

131. Which peculiarity of the clavicle?

1. * trapezoid line

2. acromion

3. spine

4. glenoid cavity

5. fossa supraspinata

132. Which peculiarity of the clavicle?

1. * sternal extremity

2. acromion

3. spine

4. glenoid cavity

5. fossa supraspinata

133. Which peculiarity of the clavicle?

1. * acromial extremity

2. acromion

3. spine

4. glenoid cavity

5. fossa supraspinata

134. Which peculiarity of the clavicle?

1. * S-shaped

2. acromion

3. spine

4. glenoid cavity

5. fossa supraspinata

135. Which peculiarity of the clavicle?

1. * impression of ligament

2. acromion

3. spine

4. glenoid cavity

5. fossa supraspinata

136. Which peculiarity of the clavicle?

1. * groove for the muscle

2. acromion

3. spine

4. glenoid cavity

5. fossa supraspinata

137. Which peculiarity of the scapula?

1. * acromion

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

138. Which peculiarity of the scapula?

1. * spine

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

139. Which peculiarity of the scapula?

1. * fossa supraspinata

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

140. Which peculiarity of the scapula?

1. * fossa infraspinata

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

141. Which peculiarity of the scapula?

1. * subscapular fossa

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

142. Which peculiarity of the scapula?

1. * glenoid cavity

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

143. Which peculiarity of the scapula?

1. * supraglenoidal tubercle

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

144. Which peculiarity of the scapula?

1. * infraglenoidal tubercle

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

145. Which peculiarity of the scapula?

1. * three margins

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

146. Which peculiarity of the scapula?

1. * three angles

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

147. Which peculiarity of the scapula?

1. * flat shape

2. impression of ligament

3. acromial extremity

4. sternal extremity

5. trapezoid line

148. An inferior projection located anterior to the mandibular fossa of temporal bone.

1. * articular tubercle

2. temporomandibular tubercle

3. mandibular condyle

4. pterygoid hamulus

5. tuberculum sellae

149. Indicate a canal which courses through the petrous part of the temporal bone

1. * facial canal

2. pterygoid canal

3. optic canal

4. condylar canal

5. mandibular canal

150. Indicate a canal which courses through the petrous part of the temporal bone

1. * carotid canal

2. pterygoid canal

3. optic canal

4. condylar canal

5. mandibular canal

151. Indicate an anatomical structure of zygomatic bone

1. * facies lateralis

2. crista conchalis

3. facies nasalis

4. processus orbitalis

5. cornu minus

152. Indicate an anatomical structure of zygomatic bone

1. * facies temporalis

2. crista conchalis

3. facies nasalis

4. processus orbitalis

5. cornu minus

153. Indicate an anatomical structure of zygomatic bone

1. * facies orbitalis

2. crista conchalis

3. facies nasalis

4. processus orbitalis

5. cornu minus

154. Indicate an anatomical structure of zygomatic bone

1. * processus temporalis

2. crista conchalis

3. facies nasalis

4. processus orbitalis

5. cornu minus

155. Indicate an anatomical structure of zygomatic bone

1. * processus frontalis

2. crista conchalis

3. facies nasalis

4. processus orbitalis

5. cornu minus

156. Indicate an anatomical structure of zygomatic bone

1. * Tuberculum orbitale

2. crista conchalis

3. facies nasalis

4. processus orbitalis

5. cornu minus

157. Indicate an anatomical structure of zygomatic bone

1. * foramen zygomaticoorbitale

2. crista conchalis

3. facies nasalis

4. processus orbitalis

5. cornu minus

158. Indicate an anatomical structure of zygomatic bone

1. * foramen zygomaticotemporale

2. crista conchalis

3. facies nasalis

4. processus orbitalis

5. cornu minus

159. Indicate an anatomical structure of zygomatic bone

1. * foramen zygomaticofaciale

2. crista conchalis

3. facies nasalis

4. processus orbitalis

5. cornu minus

160. Indicate an anatomical structure of zygomatic bone

1. * facies orbitalis

2. crista conchalis

3. facies nasalis

4. processus orbitalis

5. cornu minus

161. Indicate an opening on the posteriomedial surface of the petrous part of the temporal bone.

1. * internal acoustic meatus

2. external acoustic meatus

3. condylar canal

4. facial canal

5. carotid canal

162. Indicate anatomical structure of maxilla

1. * sinus maxillaries

2. lamina cribrosa

3. foramina cribrosa

4. sulcus ethmoidalis

5. sulcus tympanicus

163. Indicate anatomical structure of maxilla

1. * processus frontalis

2. lamina cribrosa

3. foramina cribrosa

4. sulcus ethmoidalis

5. sulcus tympanicus

164. Indicate anatomical structure of maxilla

1. * processus alveolaris

2. lamina cribrosa

3. foramina cribrosa

4. sulcus ethmoidalis

5. sulcus tympanicus

165. Indicate anatomical structure of maxilla

1. * corpus maxillae

2. lamina cribrosa

3. foramina cribrosa

4. sulcus ethmoidalis

5. sulcus tympanicus

166. Indicate anatomical structure of maxilla

1. * tuber maxillae

2. lamina cribrosa

3. foramina cribrosa

4. sulcus ethmoidalis

5. sulcus tympanicus

167. Indicate anatomical structure of maxilla

1. * processus palatinus

2. lamina cribrosa

3. foramina cribrosa

4. sulcus ethmoidalis

5. sulcus tympanicus

168. Indicate anatomical structure of maxilla

1. * processus frontalis

2. lamina cribrosa

3. foramina cribrosa

4. sulcus ethmoidalis

5. sulcus tympanicus

169. Indicate anatomical structure of maxilla

1. * facies orbitalis

2. lamina cribrosa

3. foramina cribrosa

4. sulcus ethmoidalis

5. sulcus tympanicus

170. Indicate anatomical structure of maxilla

1. * facies nasalis

2. lamina cribrosa

3. foramina cribrosa

4. sulcus ethmoidalis

5. sulcus tympanicus

171. Indicate structure of temporal bone

1. * canalis caroticus

2. canalis pterygoideus

3. processus lacrimalis

4. lamina cribrosa

5. fossa mandibularis

172. Indicate structure of temporal bone

1. * canalis nervi facialis

2. canalis pterygoideus

3. processus lacrimalis

4. lamina cribrosa

5. fossa mandibularis

173. Indicate structure of temporal bone

1. * fossa jugularis

2. canalis pterygoideus

3. processus lacrimalis

4. lamina cribrosa

5. fossa mandibularis

174. Indicate structure of temporal bone

1. * incisura jugularis

2. canalis pterygoideus

3. processus lacrimalis

4. lamina cribrosa

5. fossa mandibularis

175. Indicate structure of temporal bone

1. * pars squamosa

2. canalis pterygoideus

3. processus lacrimalis

4. lamina cribrosa

5. fossa mandibularis

176. Indicate structure of temporal bone

1. * processus zigomaticus

2. canalis pterygoideus

3. processus lacrimalis

4. lamina cribrosa

5. fossa mandibularis

177. Indicate structure of temporal bone

1. * pars tympanica

2. canalis pterygoideus

3. processus lacrimalis

4. lamina cribrosa

5. fossa mandibularis

178. Indicate the projection of bone that arises anterior to the external acoustic meatus of temporal bone.

1. * zygomatic process

2. styloid process

3. mastoid process

4. mandibular process

5. anterior clinoid process

179. Indicate the rim of bone surrounding the medial end of the external acoustic meatus (attachment site of the tympanic membrane).

1. * tympanic ring

2. tympanic circle

3. tegmen tympany

4. tympanic groove

5. tympanic part

180. Indicate thin plate of temporal bone forming the roof of the tympanic cavity and located on the floor of the middle cranial fossa.

1. * tegmen tympani

2. tympanic ring

3. tympanic bone

4. perpendicular plate

5. pterygoid hamulus

181. Name a depression on the posterior surface of the petrous part of the temporal bone that forms the anterior margin of the jugular foramen.

1. * jugular fossa

2. scaphoid fossa

3. jugum

4. pterygoid fossa

5. middle jugular fossa

182. Name the depression located medial to the origin of the zygomatic process of temporal bone.

1. * mandibular fossa

2. maxillar fossa

3. scaphoid fossa

4. ethmoidal fossa

5. intercondylar fossa

183. Name the hard part of the temporal bone located in the floor of the cranial cavity

1. * petrous part

2. squamous part

3. tympanic part

4. mastoid part

5. pterygoid process

184. Name the opening in the lateral surface of the temporal bone.

1. * external acoustic meatus

2. internal acoustic meatus

3. foramen ovale

4. facial canal

5. jugular fossa

185. The conchal crest is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Palatine bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Maxilla

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

186. The coronoid process is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

187. The coronoid process is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

188. The coronoid process is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

189. The dental alveoli is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Maxilla

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

190. The dental alveoli is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

191. The digastric fossa is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

192. The ethmoidal crest is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Palatine bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Maxilla

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

193. The horizontal plate is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Palatine bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Maxilla

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

194. The incisive canal is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Maxilla

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

195. The lacrimal groove is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Maxilla

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

196. The lacrimal notch is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Maxilla

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

197. The mandibular notch is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

198. The masseteric tuberosity is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

199. The maxillary sinus is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Maxilla

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Frontal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

200. The mental protuberance is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

201. The mental protuberance is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

202. The mental protuberance is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

203. The mental spine is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

204. The mylohyoid line is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

205. The oblique line is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

206. The orbital process is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Palatine bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Maxilla

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

207. The palatine canals is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Palatine bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Maxilla

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

208. The posterior lacrimal crest is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Lacrimal bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Palatine bone

4. Maxilla

5. Zygomatic bone

209. The pterygoid tuberosity is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

210. The pyramidal process is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Palatine bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Maxilla

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

211. The spike of bone that projects inferiorly from the petrous part of the temporal bone.

1. * styloid process

2. mastoid process

3. zygomatic process

4. stylohyoid process

5. stylomandibular process

212. The sublingual fossa is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

213. The submandibular fossa is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Mandible

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Lacrimal bone

4. Temporal bone

5. Zygomatic bone

214. The zygomatico-orbital foramen is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Zygomatic bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Mandible

4. Lacrimal bone

5. Temporal bone

215. The zygomaticofacial foramen is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Zygomatic bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Mandible

4. Lacrimal bone

5. Temporal bone

216. The zygomaticofacial foramen is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Zygomatic bone

2. Sphenoid bone

3. Mandible

4. Lacrimal bone

5. Temporal bone

217. What bone forms posteroinferor part of the nasal septum?

1. * vomer

2. ethmoid bone

3. maxilla

4. sphenoid bone

5. horizontal plate of palatine bone

218. By what structure anterior wall of infratemporal fossa is formed?

1. * maxillary protuberance

2. fissure orbitalis

3. sulcus lacrimalis

4. processus zygomaticus

5. processus pterygoideus

219. By what structure anterior wall of infratemporal fossa is formed?

1. * part of zygomatic bone

2. fissure orbitalis

3. sulcus lacrimalis

4. processus zygomaticus

5. processus pterygoideus

220. By what structure in the back pterygopalatine fossa is limited?

1. * base of pterygoid process

2. fissure orbitalis

3. sulcus lacrimalis

4. processus zygomaticus

5. processus pterygoideus

221. By what structure in the front pterygopalatine fossa is limited?

1. * maxillary protuberance

2. fissure orbitalis

3. sulcus lacrimalis

4. processus zygomaticus

5. processus pterygoideus

222. By what structure inferior wall of nasal cavity is formed?

1. * palatine process of maxilla

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

223. By what structure inferior wall of orbit is formed?

1. * maxilla

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

224. By what structure inferior wall of orbit is formed?

1. * zygomatic bone

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

225. By what structure inferior wall of orbit is formed?

1. * orbital process of palatine bone

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

226. By what structure lateral wall of nasal cavity is formed?

1. * lacrimal bone

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

227. By what structure lateral wall of nasal cavity is formed?

1. * frontal process of maxilla

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

228. By what structure lateral wall of nasal cavity is formed?

1. * nasal surface of maxilla

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

229. By what structure lateral wall of nasal cavity is formed?

1. * ethmoidal labyrinth

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

230. By what structure lateral wall of nasal cavity is formed?

1. * medial plates of pterygoid process

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

231. By what structure medial wall of infratemporal fossa is formed?

1. * lateral plate of pterygoid process of the sphenoid bone

2. fissure orbitalis

3. sulcus lacrimalis

4. processus zygomaticus

5. processus pterygoideus

232. By what structure medial wall of orbit is formed?

1. * orbital plate of ethmoid bone

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

233. By what structure medial wall of orbit is formed?

1. * lacrimal bone

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

234. By what structure medial wall of orbit is formed?

1. * nasal bones

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

235. By what structure medial wall of orbit is formed?

1. * body of sphenoid bone

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

236. By what structure on the medial side pterygopalatine fossa is limited?

1. * perpendicular plate of palatine bone

2. fissure orbitalis

3. sulcus lacrimalis

4. processus zygomaticus

5. processus pterygoideus

237. By what structure superior wall of nasal cavity is formed?

1. * inferior surface of the sphenoid bone

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

238. By what structure superior wall of nasal cavity is formed?

1. * nasal part of the frontal bone

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

239. By what structure superior wall of nasal cavity is formed?

1. * cribriform plate of ethmoid bone

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

240. By what structure superior wall of orbit is formed?

1. * orbital part of frontal bone

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

241. By what structure superior wall of orbit is formed?

1. * lesser wing of sphenoid bone

2. facies articularis

3. temporal bone

4. parietal bone

5. aperture piriformis

242. By what structure temporal fossa is limited?

1. * inferior temporal line

2. incisura ethmoidalis

3. canalis palatinus

4. fissure orbitalis

5. canalis nasolacrimalis

243. By what structure temporal fossa is limited?

1. * infratemporal crest

2. incisura ethmoidalis

3. canalis palatinus

4. fissure orbitalis

5. canalis nasolacrimalis

244. By what structure temporal fossa is limited?

1. * inferior temporal line

2. incisura ethmoidalis

3. canalis palatinus

4. fissure orbitalis

5. canalis nasolacrimalis

245. By what structure temporal fossa is limited?

1. * infratemporal crest

2. incisura ethmoidalis

3. canalis palatinus

4. fissure orbitalis

5. canalis nasolacrimalis

246. By what structure upper wall of infratemporal fossa is formed?

1. * lower part of greater wing of the sphenoid bone

2. fissure orbitalis

3. sulcus lacrimalis

4. processus zygomaticus

5. processus pterygoideus

247. How many foramina open into pterygopalatine fossa?

1. * 5

2. 6

3. 4

4. 3

5. 2

248. How many walls does orbit have?

1. * 4

2. 5

3. 2

4. 3

5. 1

249. How prominences on the upper side of the roof are called

1. * parietal tubers

2. occipital tubers

3. calvaria

4. lingula

5. greater wings

250. How the lower part of cranial skull is called

1. * base

2. calvaria

3. pterion

4. nasion

5. asterion

251. How the lower part of cranial skull is called

1. * base

2. calvaria

3. pterion

4. nasion

5. asterion

252. ?How the upper part of cranial skull is called

1. * roof

2. base

3. pterion

4. nasion

5. asterion

253. How the upper part of cranial skull is called

1. * skullcap

2. base

3. pterion

4. nasion

5. asterion

254. How the upper part of cranial skull is called

1. * calvaria

2. base

3. pterion

4. nasion

5. asterion

255. On what view infratemporal fossa is well visible

1. * lateral

2. superior

3. back

4. inferior

5. inferolateral

256. On what view infratemporal fossa is well visible

1. * lateral

2. superior

3. back

4. inferior

5. inferolateral

257. What shape has orbit?

1. * quadrilateral pyramid

2. cube

3. conus

4. triangle

5. ball

258. 4.When the epiphyseal plate becomes the epiphyseal line, the synchondrosis joint becomes a

1. * synostosis.

2. symphysis.

3. syndesmosis.

4. gomphosis.

5. suture.

259. A wide area between sutures in a newborn is called a

1. * fontanel.

2. synchondrosis.

3. syndesmosis.

4. synostosis.

5. gomphosis.

260. Articular surfaces of bones within synovial joints are covered with

1. * articular cartilage.

2. synovial membrane.

3. a fibrous capsule.

4. a tendon sheath.

5. fibrocartilage.

261. In synovial joints, blood vessels and nerves do not enter the

1. * both a and b

2. articular cartilage.

3. joint cavity.

4. bone.

5. synovial membrane.

262. Kicking a football straight ahead with your toes involves what movement of your leg?

1. * extension

2. abduction

3. adduction

4. circumduction

5. flexion

263. Kicking a football straight ahead with your toes involves what movement of your thigh?

1. * flexion

2. abduction

3. adduction

4. circumduction

5. extension

264. Most joints that unite the bones of the appendicular skeleton are

1. * synovial joints.

2. symphysis joints.

3. syndesmosis joints.

4. synchondrosis joints.

5. gomphosis joints.

265. Moving your arm laterally away from your body is

1. * abduction.

2. adduction.

3. circumduction.

4. extension.

5. flexion.

266. Raising your arm to point at something straight ahead of you involves

1. * flexion of the arm.

2. abduction of the arm.

3. adduction of the arm.

4. circumduction of the arm.

5. extension of the arm.

267. Shrugging your shoulders to indicate you don’t know the answer to a question involves

1. * elevation of the scapulae.

2. depression of the scapulae.

3. lateral excursion of the scapulae.

4. protraction of the scapulae.

5. retraction of the scapulae.

268. Sometimes people with TMJ disorders bruxate (grind side-to-side) their teeth at night. This movement is

1. * lateral excursion of the mandible.

2. medial and lateral rotation of the mandible.

3. circumduction of the mandible.

4. flexion and extension of the mandible.

5. abduction and adduction of the mandible.

269. Synovial fluid is secreted by

1. * the synovial membrane.

2. bone cells.

3. cartilage cells.

4. adipose cells.

5. both a and b

270. Synovial joints are always enclosed by a

1. * joint capsule.

2. cartilage layer.

3. tendon sheath.

4. synostosis.

5. synchondrosis.

271. ? The ala of the ilium is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Iliac bone

2. Pubic bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

272. The anterior border is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Tibia

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Femur

273. The anterior calcaneal articular facets is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Talus

2. Calcaneus

3. Navicular bone

4. Cuboid bode

5. Metatarsal bones

274. The anterior inferior iliac spine is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Iliac bone

2. Pubic bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

275. The anterior posterior gluteal lines is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Iliac bone

2. Pubic bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

276. The anterior superior iliac spine is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Iliac bone

2. Pubic bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

277. The articulation between the first rib and the sternum is a

1. * synchondrosis.

2. symphysis.

3. syndesmosis.

4. gomphosis.

5. synovial joint.

278. The articulations between the teeth and the alveolar processes are

1. * gomphoses.

2. symphyses.

3. syndesmoses.

4. synchondroses.

5. synovial joints.

279. The calcaneal sulcus is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Calcaneus

2. Talus

3. Navicular bone

4. Cuboid bode

5. Metatarsal bones

280. The calcaneal tiberosity is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Calcaneus

2. Talus

3. Navicular bone

4. Cuboid bode

5. Metatarsal bones

281. The fibular articular facet is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Tibia

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Femur

282. The fibular notch is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Tibia

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Femur

283. The gluteal tuberosity is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Femur

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Tibia

284. The greater sciatic notches is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Ischial bone

2. Iliac bone

3. Pubic bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

285. The greater trochanter is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Femur

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Tibia

286. The groove of the talus is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Talus

2. Calcaneus

3. Navicular bone

4. Cuboid bode

5. Metatarsal bones

287. The iliac crest is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Iliac bone

2. Pubic bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

288. The iliac fossa is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Iliac bone

2. Pubic bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

289. The iliac tuberosity is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Iliac bone

2. Pubic bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

290. The iliopubic eminence is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Iliac bone

2. Pubic bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

291. The inferior gluteal lines is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Iliac bone

2. Pubic bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

292. The inner lip is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Iliac bone

2. Pubic bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

293. The intercondylar eminence is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Tibia

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Femur

294. The intercondylar fossa is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Femur

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Tibia

295. The intercondylar tubercles is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Tibia

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Femur

296. The interosseous border is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Tibia

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Femur

297. The intertrochanteric crest is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Femur

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Tibia

298. The intertrochanteric line is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Femur

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Tibia

299. The ischial tuberosity is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Ischial bone

2. Iliac bone

3. Pubic bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

300. The joint between the dens of the axis and the atlas is a(n)

1. * pivot joint.

2. ball-and-socket joint.

3. ellipsoid joint.

4. hinge joint.

5. plane, or gliding joint.

301. The joint between the occipital condyles and the atlas (atlantooccipital joint) is a(n)

1. * ellipsoid joint.

2. ball-and-socket joint.

3. hinge joint.

4. pivot joint.

5. plane, or gliding joint.

302. The lateral condyles is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Femur

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Tibia

303. The lateral malleolar facet is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Talus

2. Calcaneus

3. Navicular bone

4. Cuboid bode

5. Metatarsal bones

304. The lateral malleolus is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Tibia

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Femur

305. The lesser sciatic notches is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Ischial bone

2. Iliac bone

3. Pubic bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

306. The lesser trochanter is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Femur

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Tibia

307. The ligamentum teres is found in this joint in 80% of the population.

1. * hip

2. ankle

3. knee

4. shoulder

5. temporomandibular

308. The medial border is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Tibia

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Femur

309. The medial condyles is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Femur

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Tibia

310. The medial epycondyle is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Femur

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Tibia

311. The medial malleolar facet is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Talus

2. Calcaneus

3. Navicular bone

4. Cuboid bode

5. Metatarsal bones

312. The middle calcaneal articular facets is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Talus

2. Calcaneus

3. Navicular bone

4. Cuboid bode

5. Metatarsal bones

313. The obturator foramen is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Ischial bone

2. Iliac bone

3. Pubic bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

314. The obturator groove is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Ischial bone

2. Iliac bone

3. Pubic bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

315. The outer lip is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Iliac bone

2. Pubic bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

316. The pectineal line is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Femur

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Tibia

317. The popliteal surface is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Femur

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Tibia

318. The posterior calcaneal articular facets is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Talus

2. Calcaneus

3. Navicular bone

4. Cuboid bode

5. Metatarsal bones

319. The posterior inferior liac spine is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Iliac bone

2. Pubic bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

320. The pubic tubercle is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Pubic bone

2. Iliac bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

321. The radioulnar joint, or interosseus membrane, is an example of a

1. * syndesmosis.

2. synchondrosis.

3. synostosis.

4. gomphosis.

5. symphysis.

322. The soleal line is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Tibia

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Femur

323. The sustentaculum tali is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Calcaneus

2. Talus

3. Navicular bone

4. Cuboid bode

5. Metatarsal bones

324. The symphysial surface is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Pubic bone

2. Iliac bone

3. Ischial bone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

325. The temporomandibular joint is predominately a(n)

1. * ellipsoid joint.

2. ball-and-socket joint.

3. hinge joint.

4. pivot joint.

5. Non all above

326. The tibial tuberosity is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Tibia

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Fibula

5. Femur

327. The tibular articular facet is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Fibula

2. Foot

3. Hipbone

4. Femur

5. Tibia

328. The trochlea of talus is a structural feature of which bone?

1. * Talus

2. Calcaneus

3. Navicular bone

4. Cuboid bode

5. Metatarsal bones

329. Tilting the head posteriorly to look up at the sky requires

1. * extension of the neck.

2. abduction of the neck.

3. adduction of the neck.

4. circumduction of the neck.

5. flexion of the neck.

330. To walk on her toes, a ballerina must be able to her feet for long periods of time.

1. * plantarflex

2. abduct

3. dorsiflex

4. evert

5. invert (supinate)

331. Touching the thumb with the little finger is called

1. * opposition.

2. abduction.

3. adduction.

4. flexion.

5. reposition.

332. When a suspect is arrested by the police, typically they are handcuffed behind their back. In this position, the suspect’s arms are

1. * extended.

2. abducted.

3. adducted.

4. circumducted.

5. flexed.

333. When someone is going to place something in the palm of your hand, your hand must be

1. * supinated.

2. abducted.

3. adducted.

4. flexed.

5. pronated.

334. Which joint contains cruciate and collateral ligaments?

1. * knee

2. ankle

3. hip

4. shoulder

5. temporomandibular

335. Which of these joints has neither fibrocartilage articular disks nor a labrum to support the joint?

1. * ankle

2. hip

3. knee

4. shoulder

5. temporomandibular

336. Which of these joints has the largest number of ligaments and bursae?

1. * knee

2. ankle

3. hip

4. shoulder

5. temporomandibular

337. Which of these movements is NOT required for a person in the military to salute?

1. * supination of the hand

2. flexion of the forearm

3. abduction of the arm

4. flexion of the arm

5. abduction of the forearm

338. Which of these movements of the foot causes ankle sprains most frequently?

1. * inversion

2. abduction

3. dorsiflexion

4. eversion

5. plantarflexion

339. Which of these structures is NOT covered with synovial membrane?

1. * articular cartilage

2. bursa

3. joint cavity

4. tendon sheath

5. Non all abowe

340. Which of these types of joints are bones united by fibrous connective tissue, with no joint cavity, and with little or no movement?

1. * syndesmosis

2. synchondrosis

3. symphysis

4. synovial

5. all of these

341. Which of these types of joints exhibits the greatest amount of movement?

1. * synovial joints

2. cartilaginous joints

3. gomphosis joints

4. suture joints

5. syndesmosis joints

342. You are sitting on a chair. To stand up, you must your thighs and your legs.

1. * extend, extend

2. abduct, flex

3. extend, flex

4. flex, flex

5. flex, extend

343. A baby in the fetal position has most of its joints

1. * flexed.

2. abducted.

3. adducted.

4. circumducted.

5. extended.

344. A person who is standing and bends to tie their shoe is their trunk.

1. * flexing

2. abducting

3. adducting

4. circumducting

5. extending

345. A person who is standing in the anatomic position has their hands and their forearms .

1. * supinated, extended

2. pronated, flexed

3. pronated, extended

4. supinated, flexed

5. abducted, extended

346. A pocket, or sac, filled with synovial fluid that extends for a distance away from the rest of the joint cavity is called

1. * a bursa.

2. articular cartilage.

3. an articular disk.

4. the periosteum.

5. a herniation.

347. An example of a plane, or gliding, joint is the

1. * articular processes between vertebrae.

2. shoulder.

3. elbow.

4. ankle.

5. atlantooccipital joint.

348. The fibrocartilage articular disks in this joint are referred to as menisci.

1. * knee

2. ankle

3. hip

4. shoulder

5. temporomandibular

349. A ligament formed predominantly by elastic fibers which joins the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.

1. * ligamenta flava

2. interspinous ligament

3. posterior longitudinal ligament

4. anterior longitudinal ligament

5. supraspinous ligament

350. A ligament that connects the tips of the spinous processes of thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, a syndesmosis; begins at the C7 vertebrae and ends at the mid-sacral segmental level; it serves as a muscle attachment site.

1. * supraspinous ligament

2. posterior longitudinal ligament

3. nuchal ligament

4. interspinous ligament

5. anterior longitudinal ligament

351. A ligament that courses from superior to inferior along the posterior surfaces of all vertebral bodies. It is broader at the intervertebral disks and narrow at the vertebral bodies which gives it a scalloped edge; it is located in the vertebral canal; it is not penetrated by the needle during spinal tap.

1. * posterior longitudinal ligament

2. supraspinous ligament

3. interspinous ligament

4. anterior longitudinal ligament

5. nuchal ligament

352. A midline ligament that extends posteriorly from the spinous processes of cervical vertebrae and extends from the base of skull to 7th cervical vertebra.

1. * nuchal ligament

2. interspinous ligament

3. posterior longitudinal ligament

4. anterior longitudinal ligament

5. supraspinous ligament

353. Indicate a ligament that courses from superior to inferior along the anterior surfaces of all vertebral bodies.

1. * anterior longitudinal ligament

2. interspinous ligament

3. ligamenta flava

4. posterior longitudinal ligament

5. supraspinous ligament

354. Indicate cartilaginous joints of cranial bones.

1. * synchondrosis sphenooccipitalis

2. sutura palatine transversa

3. sutura internasalis

4. sutura frontomaxillaris

5. sutura coronalis

355. Indicate cartilaginous joints of cranial bones.

1. * synchondrosis sphenopetrosa

2. sutura palatine transversa

3. sutura internasalis

4. sutura frontomaxillaris

5. sutura coronalis

356. Indicate cartilaginous joints of cranial bones.

1. * synchondrosis petrooccipitalis

2. sutura palatine transversa

3. sutura internasalis

4. sutura frontomaxillaris

5. sutura coronalis

357. Indicate cartilaginous joints of cranial bones.

1. * synchondrosis intraoccipitalis anterior

2. sutura palatine transversa

3. sutura internasalis

4. sutura frontomaxillaris

5. sutura coronalis

358. Indicate cartilaginous joints of cranial bones.

1. * synchondrosis intraoccipitalis posterior

2. sutura palatine transversa

3. sutura internasalis

4. sutura frontomaxillaris

5. sutura coronalis

359. Indicate cartilaginous joints of cranial bones.

1. * synchondrosis intraoccipitalis

2. sutura palatine transversa

3. sutura internasalis

4. sutura frontomaxillaris

5. sutura coronalis

360. Indicate cartilaginous joints of cranial bones.

1. * synchondrosis sphenoethmoidalis

2. sutura palatine transversa

3. sutura internasalis

4. sutura frontomaxillaris

5. sutura coronalis

361. Indicate ligament of elbow joint

1. * lig. collaterale ulnare

2. lig. radiocarpale

3. lig. coracoclaviculare

4. lig. conoideum

5. lig. Trapezoideum

362. Indicate ligament of elbow joint

1. * lig. collaterale radii

2. lig. radiocarpale

3. lig. coracoclaviculare

4. lig. conoideum

5. lig. Trapezoideum

363. Indicate ligament of elbow joint

1. * lig. anulare radii

2. lig. radiocarpale

3. lig. coracoclaviculare

4. lig. conoideum

5. lig. Trapezoideum

364. Indicate ligament of elbow joint

1. * lig. quadratum

2. lig. radiocarpale

3. lig. coracoclaviculare

4. lig. conoideum

5. lig. Trapezoideum

365. Indicate structure of elbow joint

1. * membrane interossei antebrachii

2. lig. radiocarpale

3. lig. coracoclaviculare

4. lig. conoideum

5. lig. Trapezoideum

366. Indicate structure of elbow joint

1. * chorda obliqua

2. lig. radiocarpale

3. lig. coracoclaviculare

4. lig. conoideum

5. lig. Trapezoideum

367. Indicate structure that belongs to TMJ

1. * lig. laterale

2. lig. nuchae

3. annulus fibrosus

4. membrane tectoria

5. nucleus pulposus

368. Indicate structure that belongs to TMJ

1. * lig. mediale

2. lig. nuchae

3. annulus fibrosus

4. membrane tectoria

5. nucleus pulposus

369. Indicate structure that belongs to TMJ

1. * membrana synovialis superior

2. lig. nuchae

3. annulus fibrosus

4. membrane tectoria

5. nucleus pulposus

370. Indicate structure that belongs to TMJ

1. * membrana synovialis inferior

2. lig. nuchae

3. annulus fibrosus

4. membrane tectoria

5. nucleus pulposus

371. Indicate structure that belongs to TMJ

1. * lig. sphenomandibulare

2. lig. nuchae

3. annulus fibrosus

4. membrane tectoria

5. nucleus pulposus

372. Indicate structures that take part in formation of shoulder joint.

1. * labrum glenoidale

2. lig.quadratum

3. lig. conoideum

4. lig. trapezoideum

5. lig.coracoclaviculare

373. Indicate structures that take part in formation of shoulder joint.

1. * ligg. glenohumeralia

2. lig.quadratum

3. lig. conoideum

4. lig. trapezoideum

5. lig.coracoclaviculare

374. Indicate structures that take part in formation of shoulder joint.

1. * lig. coracohumerale

2. lig.quadratum

3. lig. conoideum

4. lig. trapezoideum

5. lig.coracoclaviculare

375. Indicate structures that take part in formation of shoulder joint.

1. * lig. transversum humeri

2. lig.quadratum

3. lig. conoideum

4. lig. trapezoideum

5. lig.coracoclaviculare

376. Indicate structures that take part in formation of carpometacarpal joints.

1. * ligamenta carpometacarpalia dorsalia

2. ligamenta collateralia

3. ligamenta palmaria

4. ligamenta metacarpalia interossea

5. ligamenta metacarpalia palmaria

377. Indicate structures that take part in formation of carpometacarpal joints.

1. * ligamenta carpometacarpalia palmaria

2. ligamenta collateralia

3. ligamenta palmaria

4. ligamenta metacarpalia interossea

5. ligamenta metacarpalia palmaria

378. Name ligament that doesn’t belong to intercarpal joints

1. * lig. pisohamatum

2. lig. radiocarpale dorsale

3. lig. radiocarpale palmare

4. lig. ulnocarpale palmare

5. lig. carpi radiatum

379. Name ligament that doesn’t belong to intercarpal joints

1. * lig. pisometacarpale

2. lig. radiocarpale dorsale

3. lig. radiocarpale palmare

4. lig. ulnocarpale palmare

5. lig. carpi radiatum

380. Name ligament that doesn’t belong to intercarpal joints

1. * lig. patellae

2. lig. radiocarpale dorsale

3. lig. radiocarpale palmare

4. lig. ulnocarpale palmare

5. lig. carpi radiatum

381. Name ligament that doesn’t belong to intercarpal joints

1. * lig. popliteum arcuatum

2. lig. radiocarpale dorsale

3. lig. radiocarpale palmare

4. lig. ulnocarpale palmare

5. lig. carpi radiatum

382. Name ligament that doesn’t belong to intercarpal joints

1. * lig. popliteum obliquum

2. lig. radiocarpale dorsale

3. lig. radiocarpale palmare

4. lig. ulnocarpale palmare

5. lig. carpi radiatum

383. Name ligament that doesn’t belong to intercarpal joints

1. * lig. mediale

2. lig. radiocarpale dorsale

3. lig. radiocarpale palmare

4. lig. ulnocarpale palmare

5. lig. carpi radiatum

384. Name ligament that doesn’t belong to intercarpal joints

1. * lig. acromioclaviculare

2. lig. radiocarpale dorsale

3. lig. radiocarpale palmare

4. lig. ulnocarpale palmare

5. lig. carpi radiatum

385. Name ligament that doesn’t belong to intercarpal joints

1. * lig. collaterale radii

2. lig. radiocarpale dorsale

3. lig. radiocarpale palmare

4. lig. ulnocarpale palmare

5. lig. carpi radiatum

386. Name ligament that doesn’t belong to intercarpal joints

1. * lig. collaterale ulnare

2. lig. radiocarpale dorsale

3. lig. radiocarpale palmare

4. lig. ulnocarpale palmare

5. lig. carpi radiatum

387. Name ligament that doesn’t belong to intercarpal joints

1. * lig. quadratum

2. lig. radiocarpale dorsale

3. lig. radiocarpale palmare

4. lig. ulnocarpale palmare

5. lig. carpi radiatum

388. Name ligament that doesn’t belong to intercarpal joints

1. * lig. pisohamatum

2. lig. radiocarpale dorsale

3. lig. radiocarpale palmare

4. lig. ulnocarpale palmare

5. lig. carpi radiatum

389. Name ligament that doesn’t belong to intercarpal joints

1. * lig. pisometacarpale

2. lig. radiocarpale dorsale

3. lig. radiocarpale palmare

4. lig. ulnocarpale palmare

5. lig. carpi radiatum

390. Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of acromioclavicular joint

1. * glenoid fossa

2. lig. acromioclaviculare

3. discus articularis

4. lig. coracoclaviculare

5. lig.trapezoideum

391. Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of acromioclavicular joint

1. * coracohumeral ligament

2. lig. acromioclaviculare

3. discus articularis

4. lig. coracoclaviculare

5. lig.trapezoideum

392. Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of acromioclavicular joint

1. * anular ligament

2. lig. acromioclaviculare

3. discus articularis

4. lig. coracoclaviculare

5. lig.trapezoideum

393. Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of acromioclavicular joint

1. * oblique chorda

2. lig. acromioclaviculare

3. discus articularis

4. lig. coracoclaviculare

5. lig.trapezoideum

394. Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of acromioclavicular joint

1. * costoclavicular ligament

2. lig. acromioclaviculare

3. discus articularis

4. lig. coracoclaviculare

5. lig.trapezoideum

395. Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of acromioclavicular joint

1. * membrane interossea

2. lig. acromioclaviculare

3. discus articularis

4. lig. coracoclaviculare

5. lig.trapezoideum

396. Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of acromioclavicular joint

1. * lig. conoideum

2. lig. acromioclaviculare

3. discus articularis

4. lig. coracoclaviculare

5. lig.trapezoideum

397. Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of acromioclavicular joint

1. * lig. conoideum

2. lig. acromioclaviculare

3. discus articularis

4. lig. coracoclaviculare

5. lig.trapezoideum

398. Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of acromioclavicular joint

1. * lig. conoideum

2. lig. acromioclaviculare

3. discus articularis

4. lig. coracoclaviculare

5. lig.trapezoideum

399. ?Sometimes people with TMJ disorders bruxate (grind side-to-side) their teeth at night. This movement is

1. * lateral excursion of the mandible.

2. medial and lateral rotation of the mandible.

3. circumduction of the mandible.

4. flexion and extension of the mandible.

5. abduction and adduction of the mandible.

400. The atlantoaxial joint is typical:

1. * Biaxial joint

2. Uniaxial joint

3. Triaxial joint

4. Compound joint

5. Gliding joint

401. The temporomandibular joint is predominately a(n)

1. * ellipsoid joint.

2. ball-and-socket joint.

3. hinge joint.

4. pivot joint.

5. Compound joint

402. Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints

1. * lig. sternocostale intraarticulare

2. lig. capitis costae radiatum

3. lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

4. lig.transversum

5. lig. Coracoacromiale

403. Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints

1. * lig.sternocostalia radiata

2. lig. capitis costae radiatum

3. lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

4. lig.transversum

5. lig. Coracoacromiale

404. Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints

1. * A membrane sterni

2. lig. capitis costae radiatum

3. lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

4. lig.transversum

5. lig. Coracoacromiale

405. Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints

1. * lig.costoxiphoidea

2. lig. capitis costae radiatum

3. lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

4. lig.transversum

5. lig. Coracoacromiale

406. Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints

1. * membrana intercostalis externa

2. lig. capitis costae radiatum

3. lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

4. lig.transversum

5. lig. Coracoacromiale

407. Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints

1. * membrana intercostalis interna

2. lig. capitis costae radiatum

3. lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

4. lig.transversum

5. lig. Coracoacromiale

408. Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints

1. * Synchondrosis sternocostalis costae primae

2. lig. capitis costae radiatum

3. lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

4. lig.transversum

5. lig. Coracoacromiale

409. Indicate structure that belongs to pelvis as a whole.

1. * foramen ischiadicum majus

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

410. Indicate structure that belongs to the ankle joint.

1. * ligamentum collaterale mediale

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

411. Indicate structure that belongs to the ankle joint.

1. * ligamentum deltoideum

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

412. Indicate structure that belongs to the ankle joint.

1. * pars tibionavicularis

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

413. Indicate structure that belongs to the ankle joint.

1. * pars tibiocalcanea

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

414. Indicate structure that belongs to the ankle joint.

1. * ligamentum collaterale laterale

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

415. Indicate structure that belongs to the ankle joint.

1. * ligamentum talofibulare anterius

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

416. Indicate structure that belongs to the ankle joint.

1. * ligamentum talofibulare posterius

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

417. Indicate structure that belongs to the ankle joint.

1. * ligamentum calcaneofibulare

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

418. ? Indicate structure that belongs to the articulation of pelvic bones.

1. * membrane obturatoria

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

419. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulation of pelvic bones.

1. * canalis obturatorius

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

420. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulation of pelvic bones.

1. * discus interpubicus

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

421. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulation of pelvic bones.

1. * ligamentum pubicum superius

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

422. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulation of pelvic bones.

1. * ligamentum pubicum inferius

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

423. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulation of pelvic bones.

1. * ligamentum sacroiliacum anterius

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

424. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulation of pelvic bones.

1. * ligamentum sacroiliacum interosseum

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

425. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulation of pelvic bones.

1. * ligamentum sacroiliacum posterius

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

426. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulation of pelvic bones.

1. * ligamentum sacrotuberale

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

427. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulation of pelvic bones.

1. * processus falciformis

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

428. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulation of pelvic bones.

1. * ligamentum sacrospinale

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

429. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulation of pelvic bones.

1. * foramen ischiadicum minus

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

430. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulations of foot bones.

1. * ligamentum talocalcaneum laterale

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

431. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulations of foot bones

1. * ligamentum talocalcaneum mediale

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

432. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulations of foot bones.

1. * ligamentum talocalcaneum posterius

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

433. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulations of foot bones.

1. * ligamentum calcaneonaviculare plantare

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

434. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulations of foot bones.

1. * ligamentum talonaviculare

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

435. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulations of foot bones.

1. * ligamentum calcaneocuboideum

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

436. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulations of foot bones.

1. * ligamentum calcaneonaviculare

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

437. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulations of foot bones.

1. * ligamentum plantare longum

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

438. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulations of foot bones.

1. * ligamentum cuboideonaviculare plantare

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

439. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulations of foot bones.

1. * ligamentum cuneocubuideum dorsale

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

440. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulations of foot bones.

1. * ligamentum metatarsale transversum profundum

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

441. Indicate structure that belongs to the articulations of foot bones.

1. * ligamentum talonaviculare

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

442. Indicate structure that belongs to the hip joint.

1. * ligamentum iliofemorale

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

443. Indicate structure that belongs to the hip joint.

1. * ligamentum ischiofemorale

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

444. Indicate structure that belongs to the hip joint.

1. * ligamentum puofemorale

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

445. Indicate structure that belongs to the hip joint.

1. * ligamentum transversum acetabuli

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

446. Indicate structure that belongs to the hip joint.

1. * ligamentum capitis femoris

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

447. Indicate structure that belongs to the hip joint.

1. * ligamentum patellae

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

448. Indicate structure that belongs to the knee joint.

1. * ligamentum transversum genus

2. ligamentum tibiofibulare

3. ligamentum coracoacromiale

4. ligamentum lumbosacrale

5. ligamentum quadratum

449. Muscles that work together to cause a movement are

1. * synergists.

2. antagonists.

3. fixators.

4. convergent.

5. prime movers.

450. Tendinous intersections are found in the

1. * rectus abdominis muscle.

2. external abdominal oblique muscles.

3. internal abdominal oblique muscles.

4. linea alba.

5. transversus abdominis muscles.

451. The end of the muscle that is attached to the more stationary of the two bones is the

1. * origin.

2. belly.

3. fulcrum.

4. insertion.

5. fixator.

452. The inguinal canal in patient is so wide that the internal organs extend from it. What is the posterior wall of the inguinal canal?

1. * fascia transversalis

2. inguinal ligament

3. aponeurosis of m. obliquus abdominis externus

4. obliquus abdominis internus et transversus muscles

5. obliquus abdominis internus muscle

453. The inguinal canal in patient is so wide that the internal organs extend from it. What is the upper wall of the inguinal canal?

1. * obliquus abdominis internus and transversus muscles

2. fascia transversalis

3. inguinal ligament

4. aponeurosis of m. obliquus abdominis externus

5. obliquus abdominis internus muscle

454. The inguinal canal in patient is so wide that the internal organs extend from it. What is the lower wall of the inguinal canal?

1. * inguinal ligament

2. fascia transversalis

3. aponeurosis of m. obliquus abdominis externus

4. obliquus abdominis internus et transversus muscles

5. obliquus abdominis internus muscle

455. The inguinal canal in patient is so wide that the internal organs extend from it. What is the anterior wall of the inguinal canal?

1. * aponeurosis of m. obliquus abdominis externus

2. fascia transversalis

3. inguinal ligament

4. obliquus abdominis internus et transversus muscles

5. obliquus abdominis internus muscle

456. The patinet is not able to lift right arm from horizontal position to the vertical position. Which muscle does not operate?

1. * musculus trapezius

2. musculus deltoidesus

3. musculus rhomboideus

4. musculus latissimus dorsi

5. musculus pectoralis major

457. The posterior wall of the sheath of the rectus abdominis lower theavel is:

1. * transversal fascia

2. proper fascia

3. aponeurosis of musculus transversus

4. peritoneum

5. superficial fascia

458. What is the function of the external oblique muscle of the abdomen?

1. * During bilateral contraction this muscle lowers the ribs and bends the spine. During unilateral contraction it turns the body to the opposite side

2. When the pelvis is fixed, bilateral contraction this muscle lowers the ribs. During unilateral contraction it turns the body to the same side

3. Decreases the size of the abdominal cavity, brings the lower ribs down

4. Pulls the ribs down, lowering the thorax

5. Stretches the linea alba of the abdomen

459. What is the function of the external obliquemuscle of the abdomen?

1. * During bilateral contraction this muscle lowers the ribs and bends the spine. During unilateral contraction it turns the body to the opposite side

2. When the pelvis is fixed, bilateral contraction this muscle lowers the ribs. During unilateral contraction it turns the body to the same side

3. Decreases the size of the abdominal cavity, brings the lower ribs down

4. Pulls the ribs down, lowering the thorax

5. Stretches the linea alba of the abdomen

460. What is the function of the internal oblique muscle of the abdomen?

1. * When the pelvis is fixed, bilateral contraction this muscle lowers the ribs. During unilateral contraction it turns the body to the same side

2. During bilateral contraction this muscle lowers the ribs and bends the spine. During unilateral contraction it turns the body to the opposite side

3. Decreases the size of the abdominal cavity, brings the lower ribs down

4. Pulls the ribs down, lowering the thorax

5. Stretches the linea alba of the abdomen

461. What is the function of the internal obliquemuscle of the abdomen?

1. * When the pelvis is fixed, bilateral contraction this muscle lowers the ribs. During unilateral contraction it turns the body to the same side

2. During bilateral contraction this muscle lowers the ribs and bends the spine. During unilateral contraction it turns the body to the opposite side

3. Decreases the size of the abdominal cavity, brings the lower ribs down

4. Pulls the ribs down, lowering the thorax

5. Stretches the linea alba of the abdomen

462. What is the function of the latissimus dorsi muscle?

1. * It causes adduction of the arm to the body and lowering of the raised arm/ and pronation and extension in the shoulder

2. It moves the scapula to the vertebral column

3. It lifts the ribs

4. It lowers the ribs

5. It moves the scapula away from the vertebral column

463. What is the function of the latissimus dorsi muscle?

1. * It causes adduction of the arm to the body and lowering of the raised arm/ and pronation and extension in the shoulder

2. It moves the scapula to the vertebral column

3. It lifts the ribs

4. It lowers the ribs

5. It moves the scapula away from the vertebral column

464. What is the function of the levator scapulae muscle?

1. * It moves the scapula to the vertebral column

2. It causes adduction of the arm to the body and lowering of the raised arm/ and pronation and extension in the shoulder

3. It lifts the ribs

4. It lowers the ribs

5. It moves the scapula away from the vertebral column

465. What is the function of the rhomboid major and minor muscles?

1. * It moves the scapula to the vertebral column

2. It causes adduction of the arm to the body and lowering of the raised arm/ and pronation and extension in the shoulder

3. It lifts the ribs

4. It lowers the ribs

5. It moves the scapula away from the vertebral column

466. What is the function of the serratus posterior inferior muscle?

1. * It lowers the ribs

2. It moves the scapula to the vertebral column

3. It causes adduction of the arm to the body and lowering of the raised arm/ and pronation and extension in the shoulder

4. It lifts the ribs

5. It moves the scapula away from the vertebral column

467. What is the function of the serratus posterior superior muscle?

1. * It lifts the ribs

2. It moves the scapula to the vertebral column

3. It causes adduction of the arm to the body and lowering of the raised arm/ and pronation and extension in the shoulder

4. It lowers the ribs

5. It moves the scapula away from the vertebral column

468. What is the function of the transverse abdominal muscle?

1. * Decreases the size of the abdominal cavity, brings the lower ribs down

2. During bilateral contraction this muscle lowers the ribs and bends the spine. During unilateral contraction it turns the body to the opposite side

3. When the pelvis is fixed, bilateral contraction this muscle lowers the ribs. During unilateral contraction it turns the body to the same side

4. Pulls the ribs down, lowering the thorax

5. Stretches the linea alba of the abdomen

469. What is the function of the transverse abdominalmuscle?

1. * Decreases the size of the abdominal cavity, brings the lower ribs down

2. During bilateral contraction this muscle lowers the ribs and bends the spine. During unilateral contraction it turns the body to the opposite side

3. When the pelvis is fixed, bilateral contraction this muscle lowers the ribs. During unilateral contraction it turns the body to the same side

4. Pulls the ribs down, lowering the thorax

5. Stretches the linea alba of the abdomen

470. What is the function of the trapezius muscle?

1. * It moves the scapula to the vertebral column

2. It causes adduction of the arm to the body and lowering of the raised arm/ and pronation and extension in the shoulder

3. It lifts the ribs

4. It lowers the ribs

5. It moves the scapula away from the vertebral column

471. Which of these actions is accomplished by the erector spinae muscles?

1. * extend the vertebral column

2. abduct the thigh

3. flex the vertebral column

4. protract the scapula

5. It moves the scapula to the vertebral column

472. Which of these actions is accomplished by the erector spinae muscles?

1. * extend the vertebral column

2. abduct the thigh

3. flex the vertebral column

4. protract the scapula

5. moves the scapula to the vertebral column

473. Which of these muscles does NOT medially rotate the arm?

1. * infraspinatus

2. deltoid

3. latissimus dorsi

4. pectoralis major

5. teres major

474. Which of these muscles functions only to compress the abdomen?

1. * transversus abdominis muscles

2. external abdominal oblique muscles

3. internal abdominal oblique muscles

4. diaphragm

5. rectus abdominis muscle

475. Which of these muscles is NOT involved in abducting the arm?

1. * infraspinatus

2. deltoid

3. supraspinatus

4. trapezius

5. teres major

476. Which structure belongs to abdominal fascia

1. * fascia abdominis visceralis

2. septum rectovesicale

3. fascia obturatoria

4. fascia rectosacralis

5. ligamentum extraperitoneale

477. Which structure belongs to abdominal fascia

1. * fascia abdominis parietalis

2. septum rectovesicale

3. fascia obturatoria

4. fascia rectosacralis

5. ligamentum extraperitoneale

478. Which structure belongs to abdominal fascia

1. * fascia endoabdominalis

2. septum rectovesicale

3. fascia obturatoria

4. fascia rectosacralis

5. ligamentum extraperitoneale

479. Which structure belongs to abdominal fascia

1. * fascia transversalis

2. septum rectovesicale

3. fascia obturatoria

4. fascia rectosacralis

5. ligamentum extraperitoneale

480. Which structure belongs to abdominal fascia

1. * fascia umbilicalis

2. septum rectovesicale

3. fascia obturatoria

4. fascia rectosacralis

5. ligamentum extraperitoneale

481. Which structure belongs to abdominal fascia

1. * fascia iliopsoas

2. septum rectovesicale

3. fascia obturatoria

4. fascia rectosacralis

5. ligamentum extraperitoneale

482. Which structure belongs to abdominal fascia

1. * fascia iliaca

2. septum rectovesicale

3. fascia obturatoria

4. fascia rectosacralis

5. ligamentum extraperitoneale

483. Which structure belongs to abdominal fascia

1. * tela subcutanea abdominis

2. septum rectovesicale

3. fascia obturatoria

4. fascia rectosacralis

5. ligamentum extraperitoneale

484. Which structure belongs to abdominal fascia

1. * textus connectivus laxus

2. septum rectovesicale

3. fascia obturatoria

4. fascia rectosacralis

5. ligamentum extraperitoneale

485. Which structure belongs to abdominal fascia

1. * panniculus adiposus

2. septum rectovesicale

3. fascia obturatoria

4. fascia rectosacralis

5. ligamentum extraperitoneale

486. Which structure belongs to abdominal fascia

1. * fascia transversalis

2. septum rectovesicale

3. fascia obturatoria

4. fascia rectosacralis

5. ligamentum extraperitoneale

487. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * m.abdominis

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

488. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * intersections tendinae

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

489. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * vagina musculi recti abdominis

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

490. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * m.pyramidalis

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

491. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * m.obliquus externus abdominis

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

492. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * ligamentum inguinale

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

493. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * annulus inguinalis superficialis

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

494. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * m.obliquus internus abdominis

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

495. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * m.cremaster

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

496. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * m.transversus abdominis

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

497. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * linea alba

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

498. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * anulus umbilicalis

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

499. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * canalis inguinalis

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

500. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * anulus inguinalis superficialis

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

501. Which structure(s) belongs to the abdominal muscles.

1. * linea semilunaris

2. m. subcostalis

3. m.pectoralis major

4. m.deltoideus

5. m.pronator quadratus

502. While examination of a 1-year old boy the right – side inguinal hernia was diagnosed. What structure can contribute to the development of that disease?

1. * procesus vaginalis peritonei

2. fascia transversalis

3. tunica vaginalis tensis

4. musculus cremaster

5. tunica dartos

503. The muscle that can adduct, flex, and extend the arm is the

1. * pectoralis major.

2. coracobrachialis.

3. deltoid.

4. latissimus dorsi.

5. teres major.

504. The triangle of the neck is limited by the sternocleidomastoid muscle from behind and by omohyoid muscle in front. Name that triangle?

1. * carotic triangle

2. submandibular triangle

3. omotracheal triangle

4. omoclavicular triangle

5. omotrapezoid triangle

505. This muscle rotates and protracts the scapula and elevates the ribs.

1. * serratus anterior

2. levator scapulae

3. pectoralis minor

4. rhomboideus

5. trapezius

506. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * m. pectoralis major

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

507. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * m. pectoralis minor

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

508. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * m.subclavius

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

509. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * m. serratus anterior

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

510. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * mm. levatores costarum

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

511. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * mm. levatores costarum longi

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

512. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * mm. levatores costarum breves

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

513. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * mm. intercostales externi

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

514. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * membrane intercostales externa

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

515. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * mm. intercostales interni

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

516. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * membrana intercostales interna

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

517. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * mm. intercostales intimi

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

518. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * mm.subcostales

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

519. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * m. transversus thoracis

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

520. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * fascia pectoralis

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

521. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * fascia clavipectoralis

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

522. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * fascia thoracica

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

523. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with muscles of the thorax

1. * fascia endothoracica

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

524. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with diaphragm

1. * hiatus aorticus

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

525. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with diaphragm

1. * hiatus oesophageus

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

526. What anatomical structure belong or is connected with diaphragm

1. * centrum tendineum

2. m. rectus abdominis

3. m. splenius

4. deltoid muscle

5. m. levator scapulae

527. Which fascia covers the deep vessels of neck?

1. * fascia endocervicalis

2. fascia prevertebralis

3. lamina profunda fasciae colli propriae

4. lamina superficialis fasciae colli propriae

5. fascia colli superficialis

528. Which fascia covers the deepest muscles of neck?

1. * fascia prevertebralis

2. fascia endocervicalis

3. lamina profunda fasciae colli propriae

4. lamina superficialis fasciae colli propriae

5. fascia colli superficialis

529. Which fascia covers the omohyoid muscles?

1. * lamina profunda fasciae colli propriae

2. fascia prevertebralis

3. fascia endocervicalis

4. lamina superficialis fasciae colli propriae

5. fascia colli superficialis

530. Which muscle bends the head and rotates it to the opposite side?

1. * m. sternocleidomastoideus

2. m. scalenus anterior

3. m. splenius cervicis

4. m. longus colli

5. m. platysma

531. Which muscle bends the head and rotates it to the opposite side?

1. * m. sternocleidomastoideus

2. m. scalenus anterior

3. m. splenius cervicis

4. m. longus colli

5. m. platysma

532. Which muscle lifts the corner of the mouth?

1. * The zygomatic minor muscle

2. The depressor anguli oris muscle

3. The depressor labii inferioris muscle

4. The orbicularis oris muscle

5. The risorius muscle.

533. Which muscle lifts the corner of the mouth?

1. * The zygomatic minor muscle

2. The depressor anguli oris muscle

3. The depressor labii inferioris muscle

4. The orbicularis oris muscle

5. The risorius muscle.

534. Which muscle lifts the mandible?

1. * The temporal muscle

2. The medial pterygoid muscle

3. The lateral pterygoid muscle

4. The risorius muscle

5. The depressor anguli oris muscle.

535. Which muscle lifts the mandible?

1. * The medial pterygoid muscle

2. The levator anguli oris muscle

3. The lateral pterygoid muscle

4. The risorius muscle

5. The depressor anguli oris muscle.

536. Which muscle lifts the mandible?

1. * The temporal muscle

2. The medial pterygoid muscle

3. The lateral pterygoid muscle

4. The risorius muscle

5. The depressor anguli oris muscle.

537. Which muscle lifts the mandible?

1. * The medial pterygoid muscle

2. The levator anguli oris muscle

3. The lateral pterygoid muscle

4. The risorius muscle

5. The depressor anguli oris muscle.

538. Which muscle lifts the upper lip?

1. * The levator labii superioris muscle

2. The zygomatic minor muscle

3. The zygomatic major muscle

4. The levator anguli oris muscle

5. The risorius muscle.

539. Which muscle lifts the upper lip?

1. * The levator labii superioris muscle

2. The zygomatic minor muscle

3. The zygomatic major muscle

4. The levator anguli oris muscle

5. The risorius muscle.

540. Which muscle lower jaw is protracted during bilateral contraction?

1. * The lateral pterygoid muscle

2. The medial pterygoid muscle

3. The temporal muscle

4. The risorius muscle

5. The depressor anguli oris muscle.

541. Which muscle lower jaw is protracted during bilateral contraction?

1. * The lateral pterygoid muscle

2. The medial pterygoid muscle

3. The temporal muscle

4. The risorius muscle

5. The depressor anguli oris muscle.

542. Which muscle pulls the angle of mouth laterally, forming a dimple on the cheek?

1. * The risorius muscle

2. The zygomatic minor muscle

3. The zygomatic major muscle

4. The levator anguli oris muscle

5. The levator labii superioris muscle.

543. Which muscle pulls the angle of mouth laterally, forming a dimple on the cheek?

1. * The risorius muscle

2. The zygomatic minor muscle

3. The zygomatic major muscle

4. The levator anguli oris muscle

5. The levator labii superioris muscle.

544. Which muscle pulls the corner of the mouth down and to the side?

1. * The depressor anguli oris muscle

2. The levator labii superioris muscle

3. The zygomatic major muscle

4. The levator anguli oris muscle

5. The risorius muscle.

545. Which muscle pulls the corner of the mouth down and to the side?

1. * The depressor anguli oris muscle

2. The levator labii superioris muscle

3. The zygomatic major muscle

4. The levator anguli oris muscle

5. The risorius muscle.

546. Which muscle pulls the corner of the mouth up and to the side?

1. * The zygomatic major muscle

2. The orbicularis oris muscle

3. The risorius muscle

4. The depressor anguli oris muscle

5. The depressor labii inferioris muscle.

547. Which muscle pulls the corner of the mouth up and to the side?

1. * The zygomatic major muscle

2. The orbicularis oris muscle

3. The risorius muscle

4. The depressor anguli oris muscle

5. The depressor labii inferioris muscle.

548. Which muscle raises the mandible?

1. * The masseter

2. The depressor anguli oris muscle

3. The medial pterygoid muscle

4. The lateral pterygoid muscle

5. The risorius muscle.

549. Which muscle raises the mandible?

1. * The masseter

2. The depressor anguli oris muscle

3. The medial pterygoid muscle

4. The lateral pterygoid muscle

5. The risorius muscle.

550. Which muscle retract the lower jaw?

1. * The temporal muscle

2. The medial pterygoid muscle

3. The lateral pterygoid muscle

4. The risorius muscle

5. The depressor anguli oris muscle

551. Which muscle stretches the skin of neck?

1. * m. platysma

2. m. scalenus anterior

3. m. splenius cervicis

4. m. longus colli

5. m. sternocleidomastoideus

552. Which muscle stretches the skin of neck?

1. * m. platysma

2. m. scalenus anterior

3. m. splenius cervicis

4. m. longus colli

5. m. sternocleidomastoideus

553. Which muscle tenses the skin of the neck, protecting superficial veins from collapsing,and pulls the angle of the mouth down?

1. * The platysma muscle

2. The sternocleidomastoideus muscle

3. The mylohyoideus muscle

4. The geniohioideus muscle

5. The rectus capitis anterior muscle

554. Which muscles straightening the head?

1. * The rectus capitis posterior minor muscle

2. The rotatores muscles

3. The interspinales muscles

4. The intertransversarii muscles

5. The multifidus muscles.

555. Which muscles turn the head to the opposite side?

1. * The obliquus capitis inferior muscle

2. The rotatores muscles

3. The interspinales muscles

4. The intertransversarii muscles

5. The multifidus muscles.

556. Which of these muscles is NOT capable of elevating the scapula?

1. * pectoralis minor

2. levator scapulae

3. rhomboideus

4. trapezius

5. serratus anterior

557. Which of these muscles is used during forced expiration?

1. * internal intercostals

2. diaphragm

3. external intercostals

4. scalenes

5. trapezius

558. Which triangle of the neck is it bordered by digastric muscle from two sides?

1. * submandibular

2. omotrapezoideum

3. omotracheal

4. caroticum

5. omoclavicular

559. Which triangle of the neck is it bordered by digastric muscle from two sides?

1. * submandibular

2. omotrapezoideum

3. omotracheal

4. caroticum

5. omoclavicular

560. Many of the posterior forearm muscles have their origin on the

1. * lateral epicondyle of the humerus.

2. greater tubercle of the humerus.

3. lesser tubercle of the humerus.

4. medial epicondyle of the humerus.

5. olecranon process of the humerus.

561. Many of the posterior forearm muscles have their origin on the

1. * lateral epicondyle of the humerus.

2. greater tubercle of the humerus.

3. lesser tubercle of the humerus.

4. medial epicondyle of the humerus.

5. olecranon process of the humerus.

562. Most of the anterior forearm muscles are responsible for

1. * flexion of the wrist and fingers.

2. extension of the wrist and fingers.

3. extension of the forearm.

4. flexion of the forearm.

5. flexion of the arm.

563. The pathologic process was spreading through:

1. * vagina synovialis comunis mm. flexorum

2. vagina tendinis m. flexor carpi radialis

3. in ininterfascial spaces

4. vagina tendinis m. flexor pollicis longi

5. vagina tendinis m. flexor carpi ulnaris

564. Two muscles that are synergists are the

1. * biceps brachii and brachialis.

2. biceps brachii and triceps brachii.

3. coracobrachialis and brachioradialis.

4. deltoid and brachioradialis.

5. latissimus dorsi and trapezius.

565. What is the function of the abductor digiti minimi brevis muscle?

1. * The abduction of the little finger

2. It flexes proximal phalang of the thumb

3. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. The extension of the index finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

566. What is the function of the abductus pollicis brevis muscle?

1. * Abduction of the thumb

2. It supinates the radius

3. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. Extension of the index finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

567. What is the function of the abductus pollicis longusmuscle?

1. * Abduction of the thumb

2. It supinates the radius

3. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. Extension of the index finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

568. What is the function of the adductos pollicismuscle?

1. * It adducts the thumb to the index finger

2. It flexes proximal phalang of the thumb

3. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. Extension of the index finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

569. What is the function of the dorsal interossei muscle?

1. * The abduction of the I, II ,IV, V fingers from the III finger

2. It flexes proximal phalanx of the thumb

3. The opposition of the little finger

4. The flexion of the little finger

5. They adducts fingers II, IV, V to the III finger

570. What is the function of the extensor carpi radialis longus muscle?

1. * It extends the wrist. When contracting simultaneously whith the extensor carpi radialis brevis and the flexor carpi radialis, it abducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

2. It extends the wrist. When contracting simultaneously whith the extensor carpi radialis longus and the flexor carpi radialis, it abducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

3. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. It extends the little finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together whith the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

571. What is the function of the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle?

1. * It extends the wrist. When contracting simultaneously whith the extensor carpi radialis longus and the flexor carpi radialis, it abducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

2. It extends the wrist. When contracting simultaneously whith the extensor carpi radialis brevis and the flexor carpi radialis, it abducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

3. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. It extends the little finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together whith the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

572. What is the function of the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle?

1. * It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

2. It extends the wrist. When contracting simultaneously whith the extensor carpi radialis brevis and the flexor carpi radialis, it abducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

3. It extends the wrist. When contracting simultaneously whith the extensor carpi radialis longus and the flexor carpi radialis, it abducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

5. It extends the little finger

573. What is the function of the extensor digiti minimi muscle?

1. * It extends the little finger

2. It extends the wrist. When contracting simultaneously whith the extensor carpi radialis brevis and the flexor carpi radialis, it abducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

3. It extends the wrist. When contracting simultaneously whith the extensor carpi radialis longus and the flexor carpi radialis, it abducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

574. What is the function of the extensor digitorum muscle?

1. * It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

2. It extends the wrist. When contracting simultaneously whith the extensor carpi radialis brevis and the flexor carpi radialis, it abducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

3. It extends the wrist. When contracting simultaneously whith the extensor carpi radialis longus and the flexor carpi radialis, it abducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. It extends the little finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

575. What is the function of the extensor indicis muscle?

1. * Extension of the index finger

2. It supinates the radius

3. Abduction of the thumb

4. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

576. What is the function of the extensor pollicis brevismuscle?

1. * It extends the proximal phalanx of the thumb

2. It supinates the radius

3. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. Extension of the index finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

577. What is the function of the flexor carpi radialis muscle?

1. * It flexes the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

2. It take part in flexion of the forearm, pronates theforearm together with the hand

3. It streches the palmar aponeurosis

4. It pronates the arm and adducts it to the body

5. It extends the forearm

578. What is the function of the flexor carpi radialis muscle?

1. * It flexes the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

2. It take part in flexion of the forearm, pronates theforearm together with the hand

3. It streches the palmar aponeurosis

4. It pronates the arm and adducts it to the body

5. It extends the forearm

579. What is the function of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle?

1. * Flexion of the forearm

2. Pronates theforearm together with the hand

3. It flexes the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. It streches the palmar aponeurosis

5. It extends the forearm

580. What is the function of the flexor digiti minimi brevis muscle?

1. * The flexion of the little finger

2. It flexes proximal phalang of the thumb

3. It abduction of the little finger

4. The opposition of the little finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

581. What is the function of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle?

1. * It flexes the distal phalanges of the finger II-V

2. It flexes the middle phalanges and takes part in flexion of the wrist

3. It flexes the distal phalanges of the thumb

4. It pronates the forearm

5. It abductus the arm and pulls the articular capsule outward, preventing it from being jammed

582. What is the function of the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle?

1. * It flexes the middle phalanges and takes part in flexion of the wrist

2. It flexes the distal phalanges of the finger II-V

3. It flexes the distal phalanges of the thumb

4. It pronates the forearm

5. It abductus the arm and pulls the articular capsule outward, preventing it from being jammed

583. What is the function of the flexor lumbrical muscle?

1. * It flex proximal phalang and strainghten the middle and distal falanges of finger II-V

2. It flexes proximal phalanx of the thumb

3. It abduction of the little finger

4. The opposition of the little finger

5. lexion of the little finger

584. What is the function of the flexor pollicis brevis muscle?

1. * It flexes proximal phalang of the thumb

2. It adducts the thumb to the index finger

3. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. Extension of the index finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

585. What is the function of the flexor pollicis longus muscle?

1. * It flexes the distal phalanges of the thumb

2. It flexes the middle phalanges and takes part in flexion of the wrist

3. It flexes the distal phalanges of the finger II-V

4. It pronates the forearm

5. It abductus the arm and pulls the articular capsule outward, preventing it from being jammed

586. What is the function of the opponeus digiti minimi muscle?

1. * The opposition of the little finger

2. It flexes proximal phalang of the thumb

3. It abduction of the little finger

4. The extension of the index finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

587. What is the function of the opponeus pollicismuscle?

1. * Opposition of the thumb to the other fingers

2. Abduction of the thumb

3. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. Extension of the index finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

588. What is the function of the palmar interossei muscle?

1. * They adducts fingers II, IV,V to the III finger

2. It flexes proximal phalanx of the thumb

3. It abduction of the little finger

4. The opposition of the little finger

5. The flexion of the little finger

589. What is the function of the palmaris brevis muscle?

1. * It wrinkles the skin of the hypothenar region

2. It flexes proximal phalang of the thumb

3. It adducts the thumb to the index finger

4. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

590. What is the function of the palmaris longus muscle?

1. * It streches the palmar aponeurosis

2. It take part in flexion of the forearm, pronates theforearm together with the hand

3. It flexes the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. It pronates the arm and adducts it to the body

5. It extends the forearm

591. What is the function of the pronator quaduratus muscle?

1. * It pronates the forearm

2. It flexes the middle phalanges and takes part in flexion of the wrist

3. It flexes the distal phalanges of the finger II-V

4. It flexes the distal phalanges of the thumb

5. It abductus the arm and pulls the articular capsule outward, preventing it from being jammed

592. What is the function of the pronator teres muscle?

1. * It take part in flexion of the forearm, pronates theforearm together with the hand

2. It flexes the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

3. It streches the palmar aponeurosis

4. It pronates the arm and adducts it to the body

5. It extends the forearm

593. What is the function of the pronator teres muscle?

1. * It take part in flexion of the forearm, pronates theforearm together with the hand

2. It flexes the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

3. It streches the palmar aponeurosis

4. It pronates the arm and adducts it to the body

5. It extends the forearm

594. What is the function of the supinatormuscle?

1. * It supinates the radius

2. It extends the proximal phalanx of the thumb

3. It extends the finger II-V in the extension of the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

4. Extension of the index finger

5. It extends the wrist. When contracting together with the flexor carpi ulnaris, it adducts the wrist in the radiocarpal joint

595. Which muscle extends the forearm?

1. * triceps brachii

2. coracobrachialis

3. biceps brachii

4. brachialis

5. brachioradialis

596. Which muscle extends the forearm?

1. * triceps brachii

2. coracobrachialis

3. biceps brachii

4. brachialis

5. brachioradialis

597. Which muscle tendon can be injured by the bone fragment?

1. * m. biceps brachii

2. M. deltoideus

3. m. teres major

4. m. latissimus dorsi

5. m. pectoralis major

598. Which of these muscles flexes both the arm and the forearm?

1. * biceps brachii

2. brachialis

3. deltoid

4. latissimus dorsi

5. triceps brachii

599. Name the muscle that extends, abducts, and laterally rotates the thigh.

1. * gluteus maximus

2. iliopsoas

3. gluteus medius

4. gluteus minimus

5. tensor fasciae latae

600. This muscle is used to cross the legs; it flexes the leg, and flexes and laterally rotates the thigh.

1. * sartorius

2. adductor longus

3. gracilis

4. gluteus maximus

5. vastus lateralis

601. Two thigh muscles that are antagonists are the

1. * rectus femoris and semimembranosus.

2. rectus femoris and vastus lateralis.

3. vastus medialis and vastus intermedius.

4. adductor longus and vastus lateralis.

5. gluteus maximus and semitendinosus.

602. What is the function of the abductor digiti minimi muscle?

1. * It flexes the proximal phalanx of the little toe and adducts it

2. The extension the proximal phalanx of the little toe and adducts it

3. The abduction of the little toe

4. The adduction of the proximal phalanx of the little toe

5. It flexes the distal phalanx of the little toe and adducts it

603. What is the function of the abductor hallucis muscle?

1. * The abduction of the great toe

2. The extension of the toes

3. . The flexion of the toes

4. The adduction of the great toe

5. It adducts the great toe and participates in its flexion

604. What is the function of the adductor hallucis muscle?

1. * It adducts the great toe and participates in its flexion

2. The extension of the toes

3. The flexion of the toes

4. The abduction of the great toe

5. The adduction of the great toe

605. What is the function of the extensor digitorum brevis muscle?

1. * The extension of the toes

2. . The flexion of the toes

3. The abduction of the great toe

4. The adduction of the great toe

5. It adducts the great toe and participates in its flexion

606. What is the function of the extensor hallucis brevis muscle?

1. * The extension of the great toe

2. . The flexion of the toes

3. The abduction of the great toe

4. The adduction of the great toe

5. It adducts the great toe and participates in its flexion

607. What is the function of the extensor hallucis brevis muscle?

1. * The extension of the great toe

2. The flexion of the toes

3. The abduction of the great toe

4. The adduction of the great toe

5. It adducts the great toe and participates in its flexion

608. What is the function of the flexor digiti minimi brevis muscle?

1. * It flexes little toe

2. It flexes the proximal phalanx of the little toe and adducts it

3. The extension the proximal phalanx of the little toe and adducts it

4. The abduction of the little toe

5. The adduction of the proximal phalanx of the little toe

609. What is the function of the flexor digitorum brevis muscle?

1. * Flexion of the toes II-V

2. The extension the proximal phalanx of the toes II-V

3. The abduction of the toes II-V

4. The adduction of the proximal phalanx of the toes II-V

5. It flexes the distal phalanx of the toes II-V

610. What is the function of the flexor hallucis brevis muscle?

1. * . The flexion of the great toe

2. The extension of the toes

3. The abduction of the great toe

4. The adduction of the great toe

5. It adducts the great toe and participates in its flexion

611. What is the function of the flexor hallucis brevis muscle?

1. * The flexion of the great toe

2. The extension of the toes

3. The abduction of the great toe

4. The adduction of the great toe

5. It adducts the great toe and participates in its flexion

612. What is the function of the lumbricals muscle?

1. * They flex the proximal phalanges and extend the middle and distal phalanges of toes II-V, abducting them away from the great toe

2. It plantar flexes the foot and directs the pull of the long flexor of toes

3. They adduct toes III-V towards the second toe and flex the proximal phalanges

4. The adduction of the proximal phalanx of the toes II-V

5. It flexes the distal phalanx of the toes II-V

613. What is the function of the plantar III and dorsal IV interossei muscles?

1. * They adduct toes III-V towards the second toe and flex the proximal phalangesThe dorsal muscles abduct toes II-IV and flex the proximal phalanges

2. It plantar flexes the foot and directs the pull of the long flexor of toes

3. They flex the proximal phalanges and extend the middle and distal phalanges of toes II-V, abducting them away from the great toe

4. The adduction of the proximal phalanx of the toes II-V

5. It flexes the distal phalanx of the toes II-V

614. What is the function of the quadratus plantae muscle?

1. * It plantar flexes the foot and directs the pull of the long flexor of toes

2. They flex the proximal phalanges and extend the middle and distal phalanges of toes II-V, abducting them away from the great toe

3. They adduct toes III-V towards the second toe and flex the proximal phalanges

4. The adduction of the proximal phalanx of the toes II-V

5. It flexes the distal phalanx of the toes II-V

615. Which muscle can strengthen the longitudinal arch of the foot?

1. * m. flexor digitorum longus

2. m. peroneus brevis

3. m. peroneus longus

4. m. extensor digitorum brevis

5. m. extensor hallucis longus

616. Which of the muscle is injured?

1. * m. quadriceps femoris

2. m. semitendinosus

3. m. gracilis

4. m. sartorius

5. m. biceps femoris

617. Which of the muscle is injured?

1. * m. biceps femoris

2. m. quadratus femoris

3. m. quadriceps femoris

4. m. rectus femoris

5. m. sartorius

618. Which of the muscles are injured?

1. * External muscles of pelvis

2. Medial muscular group

3. Anterior muscular group

4. Dorsal muscular group

5. Internal muscles of pelvis

619. Which of the muscles are injured?

1. * Medial muscular group

2. Anterior muscular group

3. Dorsal muscular group

4. Internal muscles of pelvis

5. External muscles of pelvis

620. Which of the muscles are injured?

1. * Anterior muscular group

2. Medial muscular group

3. Dorsal muscular group

4. Internal muscles of pelvis

5. External muscles of pelvis

621. Which of these muscles flexes the thigh?

1. * iliopsoas

2. deep thigh rotators

3. gluteus maximus

4. gluteus medius

5. gluteus minimus

622. Which of these muscles is NOT used as an injection site?

1. * gluteus maximus

2. deltoid

3. gluteus medius

4. vastus lateralis

5. gracilis

Situational tasks

 

1.    A baby in the fetal position has most of its joints

A.   abducted

B.   adducted

C.   circumducted

D.   extended

E.   * flexed

 

2.    A patient 60 years old with complaints about a general weakness and pains in bones appealed to travmatologist A doctor set weakening of trophic function of the nervous system What disease of bone tissue can be here?

A.   Osteosclerosis

B.   Osteofyte

C.   Osteomielitis

D.   * Osteoporosis

E.   Osteochondrosis

 

3.    A person who is standing and bends to tie their shoe is their trunk

A.   abducting

B.   adducting

C.   circumducting

D.   extending

E.   * flexing

 

4.    Kicking a football straight ahead with your toes involves what movement of your leg?

A.   abduction

B.   adduction

C.   circumduction

D.   * extension

E.   flexion

 

5.    Movement of the body part away from the main axis of the body, or away from the midsagittal plane, is the definition of\:

A.   * Abduction

B.   Flexion

C.   Extension

D.   Circumduction

E.   Adduction

 

6.    Shrugging your shoulders to indicate you don’t know the answer to a question involves

A.   depression of the scapulae

B.   lateral excursion of the scapulae

C.   * elevation of the scapulae

D.   protraction of the scapulae

E.   retraction of the scapulae

 

7.    Sometimes people with TMJ disorders bruxate (grind::Sometimes people with TMJ disorders bruxate (grind side-to-side) their teeth at night This movement is

A.   medial and lateral rotation of the mandible

B.   * lateral excursion of the mandible

C.   circumduction of the mandible

D.   flexion and extension of the mandible

E.   abduction and adduction of the mandible

 

8.    Traumatologist examines the patient with backbone pain The anterior part of the vertebra is\:

A.   * Body

B.   Arcus

C.   Foramen

D.   Superior incisura

E.   Inferior incisura

 

9.    The child 5 years old diagnosed meningitis At what level punctuate must be done?

A.   L4-L5

B.   * L2-L3

C.   L3-L4

D.   L1-L2

E.   L12-L1

 

10. The spinal cord located in\:

A.   * Vertebral canal

B.   Sacral canal

C.   Intervertebral foramen

D.   Superior incisura

E.   Inferior incisura

 

11. Traumatologist examines the patient with backbone pain The spinal nerves pass through\:

A.   * Intervertebral foramen

B.   Sacral canal

C.   Vertebral canal

D.   Superior incisura

E.   Inferior incisura

 

12. Tilting the head posteriorly to look up at the sky requires

A.   abduction of the neck

B.   adduction of the neck

C.   circumduction of the neck

D.   * extension of the neck

E.   flexion of the neck

 

13. To walk on her toes, a ballerina must be able to her feet for long periods of time

A.   abduct

B.   dorsiflex

C.   evert

D.   invert (supinate)

E.   * plantarflex

 

14. Traumatologist examines the patient with backbone pain How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A.   * 7

B.   5

C.   8

D.   10

E.   12

 

15. When a suspect is arrested by the police, typically they are handcuffed behind their back In this position, the suspect’s arms are

A.   abducted

B.   adducted

C.   circumducted

D.   * extended

E.   flexed

 

16. When someone is going to place something in the palm of your hand, your hand must be

A.   abducted

B.   adducted

C.   flexed

D.   pronated

E.   * supinated

 

17. Which process take place in formation of joints with ribs?

A.   * Transverse

B.   Spinous

C.   Articular

D.   Mammilary

E.   Costotransversal

 

18. You are sitting on a chair To stand up, you must your thighs and your legs

A.   abduct

B.   * extend

C.   extend

D.   flex

E.   flex

 

1.    The table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   * hypoglossal

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

2.    The table of contents of which from the adopted canals can be damaged?

A.   * pterygoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

3.    The table of contents of which from the adopted canals can be damaged?

A.   * optic

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

4.    The table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   * hypoglossal

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

5.    The table of contents of which from the adopted canals can be damaged?

A.   * sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

6.    The table of contents of which from the adopted canals can be damaged?

A.   * optic

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

7.    The table of contents of which from the adopted canals can be damaged?

A.   * pterygoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

8.    The table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   * hypoglossal

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

9.    A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital The break of sphenoid bone is diagnosed in the area of basis of pterygoid process The table of contents of which from the adopted canals can be damaged?

A.   * pterygoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

10. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in   the area of fossula petrosThe table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   * tympanic

B.   tubular

C.   mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

11. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital The break of occipital bone is diagnosed in the area of occipital condylThe table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   hypoglossal

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

12. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital The break of sphenoid bone is diagnosed in the area of basis of pterygoid process The table of contents of which from the adopted canals can be damaged?

A.   * terygoid

B.   ubular

C.   ympanic

D.   arotid

E.   acial

 

13. A patient 60 years old with complaints about a general weakness and pains in bones appealed to travmatologist A doctor set weakening of trophic function of the nervous system What disease of bone tissue can be here?

A.   osteosclerosis

B.   osteofyte

C.   osteomielitis

D.   * osteoporosis

E.   osteochondrosis

 

14. As a result of tumour of hypophysis at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of pit of the Turkish saddle is exposeWhat bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   the optic canal

D.   the tympanic cavity

E.   * sinuses of sphenoid bon

 

15. As a result of tumour of middle concha at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of sinus is exposeWhat bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   * the anterior ethmoidal air cells

D.   the tympanic cavity

E.   sinuses of sphenoid

 

16. As a result of tumour of middle concha at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of sinus is exposeWhat bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   * the middle ethmoidal air cells

D.   the tympanic cavity

E.   sinuses of sphenoid

 

17. As a result of tumour of middle concha at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of sinus is exposeWhat bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   * the anterior ethmoidal air cells

D.   the tympanic cavity

E.   sinuses of sphenoid

 

18. As a result of tumour of middle concha at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of sinus is exposeWhat bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   * the middle ethmoidal air cells

D.   the tympanic cavity

E.   sinuses of sphenoid

 

19. As a result of tumour of middle concha at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of sinus is exposeWhat bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   * the middle  ethmoidal air cells

D.   the tympanic cavity

E.   sinuses of sphenoid

 

20. As a result of tumour of middle concha at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of sinus is exposeWhat bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   * the anterior ethmoidal air cells

D.   the tympanic cavity

E.   sinuses of sphenoid

 

21. As a result of tumour of superior concha at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of sinus is exposeWhat bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   * the posterior ethmoidal air cells

D.   the tympanic cavity

E.   sinuses of sphenoid

 

22. As a result of tumour of superior concha at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of sinus is exposeWhat bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   the anterior ethmoidal air cells

D.   the tympanic cavity

E.   * sinuses of sphenoid

 

23. As a result of tumour the frontal  lobes of the brain  at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of pit of the bone is exposeWhat bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   the optic canal

D.   sinuses of sphenoid bone 

E.   * sinuses of frontal bon

 

 

24. In flammation of tympanic cavity (festering otitis) at a patient was complicated by inflammation of cells of mastoid process Through what wall of tympanic cavity does pus get to the cells?

A.   lateral

B.   superior

C.   * posterior

D.   anterior

E.   medial

 

25. A child 3 years old entered clinic with a diagnosis “festering otitis”. Where one can a pus from a tympanic cavity get?

A.   In an external auditory passage-way

B.   In back cranial pit

C.   * In a papillary cave

D.   In an internal ear

E.   In an auditory tube

 

 

26. A child 5 years old entered of clinical hospital with a diagnosis “festering inflammation of middle ear (timpanit)”. The disease began from inflammation of nasophartynx. What canal of temporal bone did an infection get through in a tympanic cavity?

A.   tympanic canaliculus

B.   the carotid canal

C.   canaliculus of chorda tympani#

D.   carotico-tympanic canaliculi#

E.   * musculo-tubular canal#

 

27. A driver of a car got the trauma of the head because of a blow of a wheel. Which bone can be hurted from the facial norma ?

A.   Parietal bone

B.   Occipital bone

C.   Temporal bone

D.   Sphenoid bone

E.   * Maxilla

 

28. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of jugular fossa. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   * mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

29. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of stylomastoid foramen. The table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   * facial

 

30. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of hiatus of canal for minoris petrosal n. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   * tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

31. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of internal acoustic meatus. The table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   * facial

 

32. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of jugular fossa. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   * mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

33. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of fossula petrosa. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   * tympanic

B.   tubular

C.   mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

34. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of stylomastoid foramen. The table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   * facial

 

35. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of fissura petrotympanica. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   tympanic

B.   * chordae tympani

C.   mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

36. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of fissura tympanomastoidea. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   tympanic

B.   tubular

C.   * mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

37. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of hiatus of canal for minoris petrosal nerves. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   * tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

38. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of internal acoustic meatus. The table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   * facial

 

39. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of stylomastoid foramen. The table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   * facial

 

40. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of sphenoid bone is diagnosed in the area of basis of anterior clinoid process. The table of contents of which from the adopted canals can be damaged?

A.   * optic

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

41. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of internal acoustic meatus. The table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   * facial

 

42. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of facial canal. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   tympanic

B.   * chordae tympani

C.   mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   pterygoid

 

43. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of hiatus of canal for minoris petrosal n. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   * tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

44. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of  fissura tympanomastoidea. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   tympanic

B.   tubular

C.   * mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

45. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of fissura petrotympanica. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   tympanic

B.   * chordae tympani

C.   mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

46. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of jugular fossa. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   * mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

47. Inflammation of tympanic cavity (festering otitis) at a patient was complicated by inflammation of cells of mastoid process. Through what wall of tympanic cavity does pus get to the cells?

A.   lateral

B.   superior

C.   * posterior

D.   anterior

E.   medial

 

48. Inflammation of tympanic cavity (festering otitis) at a patient was complicated by inflammation of cells of mastoid process. Through what wall of tympanic cavity does pus get to the cells?

A.   lateral

B.   superior

C.   * posterior

D.   anterior

E.   medial

 

49. A child 3 years old entered clinic with a diagnosis “festering otitis”. Where one can a pus from a tympanic cavity get?

A.   In an external auditory passage-way

B.   In back cranial pit

C.   * In a papillary cave

D.   In an internal ear

E.   In an auditory tube

 

50. A child 5 years old entered of clinical hospital with a diagnosis “festering inflammation of middle ear (timpanit)”. The disease began from inflammation of nasophartynx. What canal of temporal bone did an infection get through in a tympanic cavity?

A.   tympanic canaliculus

B.   the carotid canal

C.   canaliculus of chorda tympani

D.   carotico-tympanic canaliculi

E.   * musculo-tubular canal

 

51. A driver of a car got the trauma of the head because of a blow of a wheel. Which bone can be hurted from the facial norma ?

A.   Parietal bone

B.   Occipital bone

C.   Temporal bone

D.   Sphenoid bone

E.   Maxilla

 

52. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of jugular fossa. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   * mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

53. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of sphenoid bone is diagnosed in the area of basis of pterygoid process. The table of contents of which from the adopted canals can be damaged?

A.   * pterygoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

54. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of fissura petrotympanica. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   tympanic

B.   * chordae tympani

C.   mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

55. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of  fissura tympanomastoidea. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   tympanic

B.   tubular

C.   * mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

 

56. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of facial canal. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   tympanic

B.   * chordae tympani

C.   mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   pterygoid

 

57. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of hiatus of canal for minoris petrosal n. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   * tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

58. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of internal acoustic meatus. The table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   * facial

 

59. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of sphenoid bone is diagnosed in the area of basis of anterior clinoid process. The table of contents of which from the adopted canals can be damaged?

A.   optic

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

60. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in the area of stylomastoid foramen. The table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   sphenoid

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   * facial

 

61. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of occipital bone is diagnosed in the area of occipital condyle. The table of contents of which from the adopted canal can be damaged?

A.   hypoglossal

B.   tubular

C.   tympanic

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

62. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of temporal bone is diagnosed in   the area of fossula petrosa. The table of contents of which from the adopted canaliculus can be damaged?

A.   * tympanic

B.   tubular

C.   mastoid

D.   carotid

E.   facial

 

63. A man with the trauma of head acted in a hospital. The break of sphenoid bone is diagnosed in the area of basis of pterygoid process. The table of contents of which from the adopted canals can be damaged?

A.   * terygoid

B.   ubular

C.   ympanic

D.   arotid

E.   acial

 

64. A patient 60 years old with complaints about a general weakness and pains in bones appealed to travmatologist. A doctor set weakening of trophic function of the nervous system. What disease of bone tissue can be here?

A.   osteosclerosis

B.   osteofyte

C.   osteomielitis

D.   * osteoporosis

E.   osteochondrosis

 

65. As a result of tumour of middle concha at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of sinus is exposed. What bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   * the middle  ethmoidal air cells

D.   the tympanic cavity

E.   sinuses of sphenoid

 

66. As a result of tumour of middle concha at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of sinus is exposed. What bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   * the anterior ethmoidal air cells

D.   the tympanic cavity

E.   sinuses of sphenoid

 

67. As a result of tumour of superior concha at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of sinus is exposed. What bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   the anterior ethmoidal air cells

D.   the tympanic cavity

E.   * sinuses of sphenoid

 

68. As a result of tumour the frontal  lobes of the brain  at sciagraphy the destruction and increase of pit of the bone is exposed. What bone cavity is here staggered?

A.   the facial canal

B.   the carotid canal

C.   the optic canal

D.   sinuses of sphenoid bone

E.   * sinuses of frontal bone

 

69. In flammation of tympanic cavity (festering otitis) at a patient was complicated by inflammation of cells of mastoid process. Through what wall of tympanic cavity does pus get to the cells?

A.   lateral

B.   superior

C.   * posterior

D.   anterior

E.   medial

 

 

70. A baby in the fetal position has most of its joints

A.   abducted

B.   adducted

C.   circumducted

D.   extended

E.   * flexed

 

71. A patient 60 years old with complaints about a general weakness and pains in bones appealed to travmatologist. A doctor set weakening of trophic function of the nervous system. What disease of bone tissue can be here?

A.   Osteosclerosis

B.   Osteofyte

C.   Osteomielitis

D.   * Osteoporosis

E.   Osteochondrosis

 

72. A person who is standing and bends to tie their shoe is their trunk.

A.   abducting

B.   adducting

C.   circumducting

D.   extending

E.   * flexing

 

73. A person who is standing in the anatomic position has their hands and their forearms

A.   pronated

B.   pronated

C.   supinated

D.   * supinated

E.   abducted

 

74. Executing the physical drills, a girl fell down on knee. The next day she began to feel sharp to pain in the place of the knee. At a review by the doctor of knee region under a skin in the its lower third haemorragia is exposed. What bones can be damaged?

A.   the sciatic bone

B.   * the patella

C.   the coccyx bone

D.   thigh-bone

E.   the pubic bone

 

75. Kicking a football straight a head with your toes involves what movement of your leg?

A.   abduction

B.   adduction

C.   circumduction

D.   * extension

E.   rotation

 

76. Kicking a football straight ahead with your toes involves what movement of your leg?

A.   abduction

B.   adduction

C.   circumduction

D.   * extension

E.   flexion

 

77. Movement of the body part to the main axis of the body, or in the horizontal plane, is the definition of:

A.   Extension

B.   * Rotation

C.   Adduction

D.   Abduction

E.   Flexion

 

78. Movement of the body part to the main axis of the body, or in the horizontal plane, is the definition of:

A.   Extension

B.   Abduction

C.   Adduction

D.   Circumduction

E.   * Flexion

 

79. Movement of the body part to the main axis of the body, or in the horizontal plane, is the definition of:

A.   Extension

B.   Abduction

C.   Adduction

D.   * Pronation

E.   Flexion

 

80. Movement of the body part to the main axis of the body, or in the horizontal plane, is the definition of:

A.   Extension

B.   Abduction

C.   Adduction

D.   * Supination

E.   Flexion

 

81. Movement of the body part to the main axis of the body, or in the frontal plane, is the definition of:

A.   Extension

B.   Rotation

C.   * Abduction

D.   Circumduction

E.   Flexion

 

82. Movement of the body part to the main axis of the body, or in the sagittal plane, is the definition of:

A.   * Flexion

B.   Rotation

C.   Abduction

D.   Circumduction

E.   Adduction

 

83. Movement of the body part to the main axis of the body, or in the sagittal plane, is the definition of:

A.   * Extension

B.   Rotation

C.   Abduction

D.   Circumduction

E.   Adduction

 

84. A person who is standing in the anatomic position has their hands and their forearms.

A.   pronated, flexed

B.   pronated, extended

C.   supinated, flexed

D.   * supinated, extended

E.   abducted, extended

 

85. A 45 years old man addressed the traumatologist after the industrial trauma of the back. The functions of extension of the back is absent. Which ligament was injured?

A.   Lig. longitudinale anterius

B.   * Lig. longitudinale posterius

C.   Lig. flava

D.   Lig. interspinalia

E.   Lig. Supraspinale

 

86. A ligament formed predominantly by elastic fibers which joins the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. Which ligament was injured?

A.   interspinous ligament

B.   * ligamenta flava

C.   posterior longitudinal ligament

D.   anterior longitudinal ligament

E.   supraspinous ligament

 

87. A ligament that connects the tips of the spinous processes of thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, a syndesmosis; begins at the C7 vertebrae and ends at the mid-sacral segmental level; it serves as a muscle attachment site.

A.   posterior longitudinal ligament

B.   nuchal ligament

C.   * supraspinous ligament

D.   interspinous ligament

E.   anterior longitudinal ligament

 

88. A ligament that courses from superior to inferior along the posterior surfaces of all vertebral bodies. It is broader at the intervertebral disks and narrow at the vertebral bodies which gives it a scalloped edge; it is located in the vertebral canal; it is not penetrated by the needle during spinal tap.

A.   * posterior longitudinal ligament

B.   supraspinous ligament

C.   interspinous ligament

D.   anterior longitudinal ligament

E.   nuchal ligament

 

89. A patient 60 years old with complaints about a general weakness and pains in bones appealed to travmatologist. A doctor set weakening of trophic function of the nervous system. What disease of bone tissue can be here?

A.   Osteosclerosis

B.   Osteofyte

C.   Osteomielitis

D.   * Osteoporosis

E.   Osteochondrosis

 

90. A patient who suffered in a car accident was examined a fracture of the left scapula with a violation of blood ciralation. Which articulation was injured?

A.   articul.sternocostalis

B.   * articul. acromioclavicularis

C.   articul. costotransversaria

D.   articul. intervertebralis

E.   articul. capitis costae

 

91. A patient who suffered in a car accident was examined a fracture of the left clavice with a violation of blood ciralation. Which articulation was injured?

A.   articul. sternocostalis 

B.   * articul. sternoclavicularis

C.   articul. costotransversaria

D.   articul. intervertebralis

E.   articul. capitis costae

 

92. A patient who suffered in a car accident was examined a fracture of the left clavice with a violation of blood ciralation. Which articulation was injured?

A.   articul. sternocostalis

B.   * articul. sternoclavicularis

C.   articul. costotransversaria

D.   articul. intervertebralis

E.   articul. capitis costae

 

93. A patient who suffered in a car accident was examined a fracture of the left scapula with a violation of blood ciralation. Which articulation was injured?

A.   articul.sternocostalis

B.   * articul. acromioclavicularis

C.   articul. costotransversaria

D.   articul. intervertebralis

E.   articul. capitis costae

 

94. Examining the patient’s abdominal cavity with the wound of anterior abdominal wall the surgeooticed the functions of flexion of the back is absent. Which ligament was injured?

A.   Lig. supraspinale

B.   Lig. longitudinale posterius

C.   Lig. flava

D.   Lig. interspinalia

E.   * Lig. longitudinale anterius

 

95. Examining the patient’s abdominal cavity with the wound of anterior abdominal wall the surgeooticed the functions of flexion of the back is absent. Which ligament was injured?

A.   Lig. supraspinale

B.   Lig. longitudinale posterius

C.   Lig. flava

D.   Lig. interspinalia

E.   * Lig. longitudinale anterius

 

96. Movement of the body part to the main axis of the body, or in the horizontal plane, is the definition of:

A.   Extension

B.   Abduction

C.   Adduction

D.   * Pronation

E.   Flexion

 

97. Movement of the body part to the main axis of the body, or in the frontal plane, is the definition of:

A.   Extension

B.   Rotation

C.   * Adduction

D.   Circumduction

E.   Flexion

 

98. Movement of the body part to the main axis of the body, or in the horizontal plane, is the definition of:

A.   Extension

B.   Abduction

C.   Adduction

D.   * Pronation

E.   Flexion

 

99. Movement of the body part to the main axis of the body, or in the frontal plane, is the definition of:

A.   Extension

B.   Rotation

C.   * Adduction

D.   Circumduction

E.   Flexion

 

100.             On roentgenogram of the organs of patients thorax cavity was discovered the increasing a sternocostal joints . Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints?

A.   * lig. sternocostale intraarticulare

B.   lig. capitis costae radiatum

C.   lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

D.   lig.transversum

E.   lig. Coracoacromiale

 

101.             On roentgenogram of the organs of patients thorax cavity was discovered the increasing a sternocostal joints . Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints?

A.   * membrana intercostalis interna

B.   lig. capitis costae radiatum

C.   lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

D.   lig.transversum

E.   lig. coracoacromiale

 

102.             On roentgenogram of the organs of patients thorax cavity was discovered the increasing a midline ligament that extends posteriorly from the spinous processes of cervical vertebrae and extends from the base of skull to 7th cervical vertebra.

A.   * nuchal ligament

B.   interspinous ligament

C.   posterior longitudinal ligament

D.   anterior longitudinal ligament

E.   supraspinous ligament

 

103.             On roentgenogram of the organs of patients thorax cavity was discovered the increasing a ligament that courses from superior to inferior along the posterior surfaces of all vertebral bodies. It is broader at the intervertebral disks and narrow at the vertebral bodies which gives it a scalloped edge; it is located in the vertebral canal; it is not penetrated by the needle during spinal tap.

A.   * posterior longitudinal ligament

B.   supraspinous ligament

C.   interspinous ligament

D.   anterior longitudinal ligament

E.   nuchal ligament

 

104.             On roentgenogram of the organs of patients thorax cavity was discovered the increasing a sternocostal joints . Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints?

A.   * lig.costoxiphoidea

B.   lig. capitis costae radiatum

C.   lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

D.   lig.transversum

E.   lig. Coracoacromiale

 

105.             On roentgenogram of the organs of patients thorax cavity was discovered the increasing a sternocostal joints . Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints?

A.   * lig.sternocostalia radiata

B.   lig. capitis costae radiatum

C.   lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

D.   lig.transversum

E.   lig. coracoacromiale

 

106.             On roentgenogram of the organs of patients thorax cavity was discovered the increasing a sternocostal joints . Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints?

A.   * membrane sterni

B.   lig. capitis costae radiatum

C.   lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

D.   lig.transversum

E.   lig. coracoacromiale

 

107.             On roentgenogram of the organs of patients thorax cavity was discovered the increasing a sternocostal joints . Which of the following structures belongs to the sternocostal joints?

A.   * membrana intercostalis externa

B.   lig. capitis costae radiatum

C.   lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

D.   lig.transversum

E.   lig. coracoacromiale

 

108.             On roentgenogram of the organs of patients thorax cavity was discovered the increasing a ligament that connects the tips of the spinous processes of thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, a syndesmosis; begins at the C7 vertebrae and ends at the mid-sacral segmental level; it serves as a muscle attachment site.

A.   posterior longitudinal ligament

B.   nuchal ligament

C.   * supraspinous ligament

D.   interspinous ligament

E.   anterior longitudinal ligament

 

109.             On roentgenogram of the organs of patients thorax cavity was discovered the increasing a sternocostal joints . Which of the following structures belongs of the sternocostal joints?

A.   * synchondrosis sternocostalis costae primae

B.   lig. capitis costae radiatum

C.   lig. capitis costae intra-articulare

D.   lig.transversum

E.   lig. coracoacromiale

 

110.             Shrugging your shoulders to indicate you don’t know the answer to a question involves

A.   depression of the scapulae

B.   lateral excursion of the scapulae

C.   * elevation of the scapulae

D.   protraction of the scapulae

E.   retraction of the scapulae

 

111.             Shrugging your shoulders to indicate you don’t know the answer to a question involves

A.   depression of the scapulae

B.   lateral excursion of the scapulae

C.   * elevation of the scapulae

D.   protraction of the scapulae

E.   retraction of the scapulae

 

112.             Sometimes people with TMJ disorders bruxate (grind side-to-side) their teeth at night. This movement is

A.   medial and lateral rotation of the mandible

B.   * lateral excursion of the mandible

C.   circumduction of the mandible

D.   flexion and extension of the mandible

E.   abduction and adduction of the mandible

 

113.             Sometimes people with TMJ disorders bruxate (grind side-to-side) their teeth at night. This movement is

A.   medial and lateral rotation of the mandible

B.   * lateral excursion of the mandible

C.   circumduction of the mandible

D.   flexion and extension of the mandible

E.   abduction and adduction of the mandible

 

114.             Tilting the head posteriorly to look up at the sky requires

A.   abduction of the neck

B.   adduction of the neck

C.   circumduction of the neck

D.   * extension of the neck

E.   flexion of the neck

 

115.             Tilting the head posteriorly to look up at the sky requires

A.   abduction of the neck

B.   adduction of the neck

C.   circumduction of the neck

D.   * extension of the neck

E.   flexion of the neck

 

116.             When a suspect is arrested by the police, typically they are handcuffed behind their back. In this position, the suspect’s arms are

A.   abducted

B.   adducted

C.   circumducted

D.   * extended

E.   flexed

 

117.             When a suspect is arrested by the police, typically they are handcuffed behind their back. In this position, the suspect’s arms are

A.   abducted

B.   adducted

C.   circumducted

D.   * extended

E.   flexed

 

118.             When someone is going to place something in the palm of your hand, your hand must be

A.   abducted

B.   adducted

C.   flexed

D.   pronated

E.   * supinated

 

119.             When someone is going to place something in the palm of your hand, your hand must be

A.   abducted

B.   adducted

C.   flexed

D.   pronated

E.   * supinated

 

120.             Kicking a football straight a head with your toes::Kicking a football straight a head with your toes involves what movement of your thigh?

A.   abduction

B.   adduction

C.   circumduction

D.   rotation

E.   * flexion

 

121.             Kicking a football straight ahead with your toes involves what movement of your leg?

A.   abduction

B.   adduction

C.   circumduction

D.   * extension

E.   flexion

 

122.             To walk on her toes, a ballerina must be able to her feet for long periods of time.

A.   abduct

B.   dorsiflex

C.   evert

D.   invert (supinate)

E.   * plantarflex

 

123.             You are sitting on a chair. To stand up, you must your thighs and your legs.

A.   abduct, flex

B.   * extend, extend

C.   extend, flex

D.   flex, flex

E.   flex, extend

 

124.             Which parts is the upper region of the abdomen divided into?

A.   =Regiones hypochondriacae dextra et sinistra, regio epigastrica

B.   Regio umbilicalis, regiones hypochondriacae dextra et sinistra

C.   Regiones laterales dextra et sinistra, regio umbilicalis

D.   Regiones hypochondriacae dextra et sinistra, regio umbilicalis

E.   Regiones laterales dextra et sinistra, regio epigastrica

 

125.             the doctor observes the diaphragm. Name the organ that pass through the diaphragm?

A.   =The vagus nerve

B.   The inferior venae cavae

C.   The inferior phrenic arteries

D.   The superior phrenic arteries

E.   The celiac trunk

 

126.             the doctor observes the organs of  the abdominal cavity. Name the walls of the inguinal canal ?

A.   =Anterior, posterior, superior, inferior

B.   Superficial, posterior, superior, inferior

C.   External, deep, posterior, superior

D.   Internal, posterior, superior, inferior

E.   Deep, external, posterior, inferior

 

127.             the doctor observes the organs of  the abdominal cavity. Which parts is the lower region of the abdomen divided into?

A.   =Regiones inguinales dextra et sinistra, regio pubica

B.   Regio umbilicalis, regiones hypochondriacae dextra et sinistra

C.   Regiones hypochondriacae dextra et sinistra, regio epigastrica

D.   Regiones hypochondriacae dextra et sinistra, regio umbilicalis

E.   Regiones laterales dextra et sinistra, regio epigastrica

 

128.             the doctor observes the organs of  the abdominal cavity. Which parts is the middle region of the abdomen divided into (Latin terms)?

A.   =Regiones laterales dextra et sinistra, regio umbilicalis

B.   Regio umbilicalis, regiones hypochondriacae dextra et sinistra

C.   Regiones hypochondriacae dextra et sinistra, regio epigastrica

D.   Regiones hypochondriacae dextra et sinistra, regio umbilicalis

E.   Regiones laterales dextra et sinistra, regio epigastrica

 

129.             A patient who suffered in a car accident was examined for fracture of the ribs. What muscles raise the ribs?

A.   =The subcostales muscles

B.   The subclavius muscles

C.   The external intercostal muscles

D.   The internal intercostal muscles

E.   The transversus thoracis muscle

 

130.             A patient who suffered in a car accident was examined for fracture of the lower ribs. Which muscle pulls down the costal cartilages and lower ribs?

A.   =The transversus thoracis muscle

B.   The subclavius muscles

C.   The external intercostal muscles

D.   The serratus anterior muscles

E.   The pectoralis minor muscle

 

131.             A patient who suffered in a car accident was examined for fracture of the left scapula. Which muscle shifts the scapula to the front and the side?

A.   The internal intercostal muscles

B.   =The serratus anterior muscle

C.   The subclavius muscle

D.   The transversus thoracis muscle

E.   The subcostales muscles

 

132.             A patient who suffered in a car accident was examined for fracture of the left clavicle Which muscle moves the clavicle downwards and towards the front?

A.   The pectoralis minor muscle

B.   =The subclavius muscle

C.   The pectoralis major muscle

D.   The external intercostal muscles

E.   The serratus anterior muscle

 

133.             A patient who suffered in a car accident was examined for fracture of the left scapula Which muscle bends the scapula forward?

A.   The subclavius muscle

B.   =The pectoralis minor muscle

C.   The pectoralis major muscle

D.   The serratus anterior muscle

E.   The external intercostal muscle

 

134.             Examining the patient’s abdominal cavity with the wound of anterior abdominal wall the surgeooticed the hurting of diaphragm. Which organs pass through the diaphragm in its lumbar part?

A.   =The aorta

B.   The inferior venae cavae

C.   The inferior phrenic arteries

D.   The superior phrenic arteries

E.   The celiac trunk

 

135.             Examining the patient’s abdominal cavity with the wound of anterior abdominal wall the surgeooticed the hurting of diaphragm. Name the opening of the diaphragm?

A.   =The  esophageal hiatus

B.   The opening for the inferior venae cavae

C.   The opening for the inferior phrenic arteries

D.   The opening for the superior phrenic arteries

E.   The opening for the celiac trunk

 

136.             Examining the patient’s abdominal cavity with the wound of anterior abdominal wall the surgeooticed the hurting of diaphragm. Name the opening of the diaphragm?

A.   =The aortic hiatus

B.   The opening for the inferior venae cavae

C.   The opening for the inferior phrenic arteries

D.   The opening for the superior phrenic arteries

E.   The opening for the celiac trunk

 

137.             Examining the patient’s abdominal cavity with the wound of anterior abdominal wall the surgeooticed the hurting of diaphragm. Name the opening of the diaphragm?

A.   =The caval opening

B.   The opening for the inferior venae cavae

C.   The opening for the inferior phrenic arteries

D.   The opening for the superior phrenic arteries

E.   The opening for the celiac trunk

 

138.             Examining the patient’s abdominal cavity with the wound of anterior abdominal wall the surgeooticed the hurting of diaphragm. Name the organ that pass through the diaphragm?

A.   =The vagus nerve

B.   The inferior venae cavae

C.   The inferior phrenic arteries

D.   The superior phrenic arteries

E.   The celiac trunk

 

139.             Examining the patient’s abdominal cavity with the wound of anterior abdominal wall the surgeooticed the hurting of diaphragm. Name the organ that pass through the diaphragm?

            =The esophagus

            The inferior venae cavae

            The inferior phrenic arteries

            The superior phrenic arteries

            The celiac trunk

 

140.             On roentgenogram of the organs of patients thorax cavity was discovered the increasing the organ  of the diaphragm. Name the organ that pass through the diaphragm?

            =The aorta

            The inferior venae cavae

            The inferior phrenic arteries

            The superior phrenic arteries

            The celiac trunk

 

141.             Under ultrasonic of the abdominal cavity examination the doctor observes the muscle. Which muscle brings the lower ribs down and to the front?

             The internal oblique muscle of the abdomen

            = The transverse abdominal muscle

             The external oblique muscle of the abdomen

             The pyramidalis muscle

             The rectus abdominis muscle

 

142.             Under ultrasonic of the abdominal cavity examination the doctor observes the muscle. Which muscle bends the vertebral column and lowers the ribs ?

            =The internal oblique muscle of the abdomen

             The phrenicus muscle

             The transverse abdominal muscle

             The quadratus lumborum muscle

             The pyramidalis muscle

 

143.             Under ultrasonic of the abdominal cavity examination the doctor observes the muscle. Which muscle lowers the ribs and bends the spine during bilateral contraction?

            =The external oblique muscle of the abdomen

            The serratus anterior muscle

            The transverse abdominal muscle

            The external intercostal muscles

            The pyramidalis muscle

 

144.             Under ultrasonic of the abdominal cavity examination the doctor observes the muscle. Which muscle pulls the ribs down, lowering the thorax when the spine and pelvic girdle are fixed?

            =The rectus abdominis muscle

            The quadratus lumborum muscle

            The phrenicus muscle

            The pyramidalis muscle

            The transverse abdominal muscle

 

145.             Under ultrasonic of the abdominal cavity examination the doctor observes the muscle. Which muscle stretches the linea alba of the abdomen?

            The internal oblique muscle of the abdomen

            =The pyramidalis muscle

            The external oblique muscle of the abdomen

            The transverse abdominal muscle

            The rectus abdominis muscle

 

 

146.             Under ultrasonic of the abdominal cavity examination the doctor observes the muscle. Which muscle helps support the trunk in an upright position during bilateral contraction?

            =The quadratus lumborum muscle

            The psoas major muscle

            The psoas minor muscle

            The transverse abdominal muscle

            The rectus abdominis muscle

 

147.             Under ultrasonic of the abdominal cavity examination the doctor observes the muscle. Which muscle participates in flexion of the femur in the coxal joint?

            The psoas minor muscle

            =The psoas major muscle

            The quadratus lumborum muscle

            The internal intercostal muscles

            The phrenicus muscle

 

148.             Under ultrasonic of the vertebral column examination the doctor observes the diaphragm. Name the organ that pass through the diaphragm?

            =The inferior venae cavae

             The inferior venae cavae

             The inferior phrenic arteries

             The superior phrenic arteries

             The celiac trunk

149.             A 30-aged patient feels a sharp pain when he pulls his jaw to posterior position. The dentist said that he has the inflammation of one of the masticatory muscle. Which one is damaged?

A.   =musculus temporalis (posterior fibers)

B.   musculus temporalis (anterior fibers)

C.   medial pterygoid muscle

D.   lateral pterygoid muscle

E.   masseter

 

150.             A child of 5 years old was delivered to the infections department of the hospital with the diagnosis of diphtheria. In which triangle of the neck is it possible to find the trachea?

A.   =omotracheale

B.   omotrapezoideum

C.   caroticum

D.   omoclaviculare

E.   submandibulare

 

151.             A child of 5 years old was delivered to the infections department of the hospital with the diagnosis of diphtheria. In which triangle of the neck is it possible to find the trachea?

A.   =omotracheale

B.   omotrapezoideum

C.   caroticum

D.   omoclaviculare

E.   submandibulare

 

152.             A patient with a wounded neck soft tissue and the damage of the platysma muscle was delivered to the hospital. Which neck fascia covers this muscle ?

A.   =fascia colli superficialis

B.   fascia prevertebralis

C.   fascia endocervicalis

D.   lamina profunda fasciae colli propriae

E.   lamina superficialis fasciae colli propriae

 

153.             A patient with severe intoxication was admitted to the hospital. To provide treatment it is necessary to perform catheterination of the subclavian vein. In what area is it located?

A.   =spatuim anterscalenum

B.   trigonum omotrapezoideum

C.   spatuim interscalenum

D.   spatium retrosternocleidomastoideus

E.   spatuim interaponeuroticum suprasternale

 

154.             During the dissection was discovered pus in space between superficial and deep layers of proper cervical fascia. What name of this space?

A.   =spatium interaponeuroticum suprasternale

B.   previsceral space

C.   retrovisceral space

D.   spatium interscalenium

E.   spatium anterscalenium

 

155.             During the dissection was discovered pus in space between pharynx and deep neck muscles.What is the name of this space?

A.   =retrovisceral space

B.   previsceral space

C.   spatium interaponeuroticum suprasternale

D.   spatium interscalenium

E.   spatium anterscalenium

 

156.             On tracheotomy arcus venosus juguli was ocasionaly cut in patient aged 45 who was admitted to the hospital with the larynx edema. Where is that arch located?

A.   =interaponeuroticum space

B.   Antercalenium space

C.   pretracheale space

D.   Retropharyngeal space

E.   Interscalenum space

 

157.             Patient feels a sharp pain in masticatory muscles when he compresses the molars (chewing teeth). Which muscle develops maximal power for chewing the food?

A.   =masseter muscle

B.   musculus temporalis (posterior fibers)

C.   musculus temporalis (anterior fibers)

D.   medial pterygoid muscle

E.   lateral pterygoid

 

158.             Patient feels a sharp pain when he compresses the incisors (front teeth). Which muscle develops maximal power for biting off the food?

A.   =musculus temporalis (anterior fibers)

B.   musculus temporalis (posterior fibers)

C.   medial pterygoid muscle

D.   lateral pterygoid muscle

E.   masseter

 

159.             Patient with damaged sternocleidomastoid muscle was delivered to the hospital. Which fascia covers this muscle?

A.   =lamina superficialis fasciae colli propriae

B.   fascia prevertebralis

C.   fascia endocervicalis

D.   lamina profunda fasciae colli propriae

E.   fascia colli superficialis

 

160.             To stop the bleeding it is necessary to press the subclavian artery. In what area is it located?

A.   =spatuim interscalenum

B.   trigonum omotrapezoideum

C.   spatuim anterscalenum

D.   spatuim retrosternocleidomastoideus

 

161.             spatuim interaponeuroticum suprasternale A 45 year old man addressed the traumatologist after the industrial trauma of the shoulder. The functions of abduction of the arm is absent. What muscle was injured?

A.   * m. supraspinatus

B.   subscapular muscle

C.   m. infraspinatus

D.   m. teres major

E.   m. teres minor

 

162.             A child of 7 years caot lift the forearm to the shoulder. Which muscle’s active function is absent?

A.   * musculus biceps brachii

B.   musculus teres major

C.   musculus pectoralis major

D.   musculus teres minor

E.   musculus deltoideus

 

163.             A child of 7 years caot lift the forearm to the shoulder. Which muscle’s active function is absent?

A.   * musculus biceps brachii

B.   musculus teres major

C.   musculus pectoralis major

D.   musculus teres minor

E.   musculus deltoideus

 

164.             A patient caot abduct the arm. Which muscle’s active function is absent?

A.   * musculus deltoideus

B.   musculus teres major

C.   musculus pectoralis major

D.   musculus biceps brachii

E.   musculus teres minor

 

165.             A patient caot abduct the arm. Which muscle’s active function is absent?

A.   * musculus deltoideus

B.   musculus teres major

C.   musculus pectoralis major

D.   musculus biceps brachii

E.   musculus teres minor

 

166.             After falling from the height a man stroke his anterior shoulder surface on a projecting hard thing. During the examination the surgeon diagnosed the rupture of the biceps brachii. What functions of the upper extremity are going to be disturbed that trauma?

A.   * flexion of the arm and of the forearm

B.   flexion of the arm and hand

C.   flexion of the arm, forearm, and hand

D.   flexion of the arm

E.   flexion and pronation of the forearm

 

167.             After falling from the height a man stroke his anterior shoulder surface on a projecting hard thing. During the examination the surgeon diagnosed the rupture of the biceps brachii. What functions of the upper extremity are going to be disturbed that trauma?

A.   * flexion of the arm and of the forearm

B.   flexion of the arm and hand

C.   flexion of the arm, forearm, and hand

D.   flexion of the arm

E.   flexion and pronation of the forearm

 

168.             After trauma a patient cannot extend arm in the elbow joint. What muscle was injured?

A.   * m. triceps brachii

B.   m. brachioradialis

C.   m. pronator major

D.   m. subscapularis

E.   m. infraspiratus

 

169.             After trauma a patient cannot extend arm in the elbow joint. What muscle was injured?

A.   * m. triceps brachii

B.   m. brachioradialis

C.   m. pronator major

D.   m. subscapularis

E.   m. infraspiratus

 

170.             Extrinsic hand muscles are found in the

A.   * forearm.

B.   arm.

C.   hand.

D.   fingers.

E.   Head

 

171.             If a woman raises her arms laterally from her sides until they are level with her shoulders, she mostly uses her

A.   * deltoid muscles.

B.   biceps brachii muscles.

C.   latissimus dorsi muscles.

D.   pectoralis major muscles.

E.   all of these

 

172.             If a woman raises her arms laterally from her sides until they are level with her shoulders, she mostly uses her

A.   * deltoid muscles.

B.   biceps brachii muscles.

C.   latissimus dorsi muscles.

D.   pectoralis major muscles.

E.   all of these

 

173.             The orchestra conductor is not able to abduct the arm. Which muscle does not operate?

A.   * musculus deltoideus

B.   musculus trapezius

C.   musculus rhomboideus

D.   musculus latissimus dorsi

E.   musculus pectoralis major

 

174.             The orchestra conductor is not able to abduct the arm. Which muscle does not operate?

A.   * musculus deltoideus

B.   musculus trapezius

C.   musculus rhomboideus

D.   musculus latissimus dorsi

E.   musculus pectoralis major

 

175.             Which muscle tendon can be injured by the bone fragment?

A.   * m. biceps brachii

B.   M. deltoideus

C.   m. teres major

D.   m. latissimus dorsi

E.   m. pectoralis major

 

176.             A patient caot bend of the toes. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. flexor digitorum longus

B.   m. extensor digitorum brevis

C.   m. extensor hallucis longus

D.   m. tibialis anterior

E.   m. tibialis posterior

 

177.             A patient caot bend of the toes. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. flexor digitorum longus

B.   m. extensor digitorum brevis

C.   m. extensor hallucis longus

D.   m. tibialis anterior

E.   m. tibialis posterior

 

178.             A patient caot make flexion of the toes. What muscle can be injured?

A.   * m. quadratus plantae

B.   m. peroneus brevis

C.   m. peroneus longus

D.   m. tibialis anterior

E.   m. tibialis posterior

 

179.             A patient caot make flexion of the toes. What muscle can be injured?

A.   * m. quadratus plantae

B.   m. peroneus brevis

C.   m. peroneus longus

D.   m. tibialis anterior

E.   m. tibialis posterior

 

180.             A patient caot make flexion of the toes. What muscle can be injured?

A.   * m. quadratus plantae

B.   m. peroneus brevis

C.   m. peroneus longus

D.   m. tibialis anterior

E.   m. tibialis posterior

 

181.             A patient caot to extend the foot. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. tibialis anterior

B.   m. flexor digitorum longus

C.   m. peroneus brevis

D.   m. peroneus longus

E.   m. tibialis posterior

 

182.             A patient caot to extend the foot. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. tibialis anterior

B.   m. flexor digitorum longus

C.   m. peroneus brevis

D.   m. peroneus longus

E.   m. tibialis posterior

 

183.             A patient caot to extend the foot. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. tibialis anterior

B.   m. flexor digitorum longus

C.   m. peroneus brevis

D.   m. peroneus longus

E.   m. tibialis posterior

 

184.             A patient caot to lift lateral margin of the foot. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. peroneus brevis

B.   m. extensor digitorum longus

C.   m. triceps surae

D.   m. tibialis posterior

E.   m. tibialis anterior

 

185.             A patient caot to lift lateral margin of the foot. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. peroneus brevis

B.   m. extensor digitorum longus

C.   m. triceps surae

D.   m. tibialis posterior

E.   m. tibialis anterior

 

186.             A patient caot to lift lateral margin of the foot. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. peroneus brevis

B.   m. extensor digitorum longus

C.   m. triceps surae

D.   m. tibialis posterior

E.   m. tibialis anterior

 

187.             A patient caot to lift medial margin of the foot. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. tibialis anterior

B.   m. tibialis posterior

C.   m. flexor digitorum longus

D.   m. peroneus brevis

E.   m. peroneus longus

 

188.             A patient caot to lift medial margin of the foot. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. tibialis anterior

B.   m. tibialis posterior

C.   m. flexor digitorum longus

D.   m. peroneus brevis

E.   m. peroneus longus

 

189.             A patient caot to lift medial margin of the foot. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. tibialis anterior

B.   m. tibialis posterior

C.   m. flexor digitorum longus

D.   m. peroneus brevis

E.   m. peroneus longus

 

190.             A patient caot to make flexion of the foot. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. tibialis posterior

B.   m. extensor digitorum longus

C.   m. extensor digitorum brevis

D.   m. extensor hallucis longus

E.   m. tibialis anterior

 

191.             A patient caot to make flexion of the foot. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. tibialis posterior

B.   m. extensor digitorum longus

C.   m. extensor digitorum brevis

D.   m. extensor hallucis longus

E.   m. tibialis anterior

 

192.             A patient caot to make flexion of the foot. What muscle is injured?

A.   * m. tibialis posterior

B.   m. extensor digitorum longus

C.   m. extensor digitorum brevis

D.   m. extensor hallucis longus

E.   m. tibialis anterior

 

193.             After the trauma a patient cannot stand on tiptoes. Which muscle is damaged?

A.   * m. triceps surae

B.   m. fibularis longus

C.   m. extensor hallucis longus

D.   m. tibialis anterior

E.   m. tibialis posterior

 

194.             After the trauma a patient cannot stand on tiptoes. Which muscle is damaged?

A.   * m. triceps surae

B.   m. fibularis longus

C.   m. extensor hallucis longus

D.   m. tibialis anterior

E.   m. tibialis posterior

 

195.             Doing his morning exercise a fifteen – year boy felt a sharp pain in the zone of a hip joint when the limb is turning inside (pronation). The doctor discovered the injury of the tendon of one of the muscles which can rotate medially leg. Which muscle is this?

A.   * m. gluteus medius

B.   m. piriformis

C.   m. oburatorius internus

D.   m. obturatorius externus

E.   m. quadratus femoris

 

196.             Doing his morning exercise a fifteen – year boy felt a sharp pain in the zone of a hip joint when the limb is turning inside (pronation). The doctor discovered the injury of the tendon of one of the muscles which can rotate medially leg. Which muscle is this?

A.   * m. gluteus medius

B.   m. piriformis

C.   m. oburatorius internus

D.   m. obturatorius externus

E.   m. quadratus femoris

 

197.             motorcycle wheel hits on the leg resulted in the rupture of the deep blood vessels accompanied by a large hematoma. Which big canal with vessels ans nerves located under triceps surae muscle?

A.   * cruropopliteal canal

B.   superior musculoperoneal canal

C.   inferior musculoperoneal canal

D.   adductorial canal

E.   E obturator canal

 

198.             motorcycle wheel hits on the leg resulted in the rupture of the deep blood vessels accompanied by a large hematoma. Which big canal with vessels ans nerves located under triceps surae muscle?

A.   * cruropopliteal canal

B.   superior musculoperoneal canal

C.   inferior musculoperoneal canal

D.   adductorial canal

E.   E obturator canal

 

199.             motorcycle wheel hits on the thigh resulted in the rupture of the blood vessels. Which canal with vessels ans nerves located there?

A.   * adductorial canal

B.   superior musculoperoneal canal

C.   inferior musculoperoneal canal

D.   cruropopliteal canal

E.   obturator canal

 

200.             motorcycle wheel hits on the thigh resulted in the rupture of the blood vessels. Which canal with vessels ans nerves located there?

A.   * adductorial canal

B.   superior musculoperoneal canal

C.   inferior musculoperoneal canal

D.   cruropopliteal canal

E.   obturator canal

 

201.             Patient felt a sharp pain in the zone of a hip joint when he flexes the thigh. The doctor discovered the injury of the tendon of the muscle. Which muscle is this?

A.   * m. rectus femoris

B.   m. gluteus medius

C.   m. biceps femoris

D.   m. oburatorius internus

E.   m. obturatorius externus

 

202.             Patient felt a sharp pain in the zone of a hip joint when he extends the knee. The doctor discovered the injury of the tendon of the muscle. Which muscle is this?

A.   * m. quadriceps femoris

B.   m. biceps femoris

C.   m. rectus femoris

D.   m. oburatorius internus

E.   m. obturatorius externus

 

203.             Patient felt a sharp pain in the zone of a hip joint when he flexes the thigh. The doctor discovered the injury of the tendon of the muscle. Which muscle is this?

A.   * m. rectus femoris

B.   m. gluteus medius

C.   m. biceps femoris

D.   m. oburatorius internus

E.   m. obturatorius externus

 

204.             Patient felt a sharp pain in the zone of a hip joint when he extends the knee. The doctor discovered the injury of the tendon of the muscle. Which muscle is this?

A.   * m. quadriceps femoris

B.   m. biceps femoris

C.   m. rectus femoris

D.   m. oburatorius internus

E.   m. obturatorius externus

 

205.             Patient with a wound in the field of the foot sole was delivered to the traumatologist. The lifting of lateral foot edge is limited. Which muscle function is broken?

A.   * m. peroneus longus

B.   m. extensor digitorum longus

C.   m. triceps surae

D.   m. soleus

E.   m. tibialis anterior

 

206.             Patient with a wound in the field of the foot sole was delivered to the traumatologist. The lifting of lateral foot edge is limited. Which muscle function is broken?

A.   * m. peroneus longus

B.   m. extensor digitorum longus

C.   m. triceps surae

D.   m. soleus

E.   m. tibialis anterior

 

207.             Patient with a wound in the field of the foot sole was delivered to the traumatologist. The lifting of lateral foot edge is limited. Which muscle function is broken?

A.   * m. peroneus longus

B.   m. extensor digitorum longus

C.   m. triceps surae

D.   m. soleus

E.   m. tibialis anterior

 

208.             The medial group of thigh muscles is involved primarily in

A.   * adduction of the thigh.

B.   abduction of the thigh.

C.   extension of the thigh.

D.   flexion of the thigh.

E.   flexion of the leg.

 

209.             The patient has to make flexion of hip joint to discover pain symptom in the pelvic cavity. Which muscle is contracted during this movement?

A.   * m. iliopsoas

B.   m. lumbricales

C.   m. vastus lateralis

D.   m. vastus lateralis

E.   m. transversus abdominis

 

210.             The patient has to make flexion of hip joint to discover pain symptom in the pelvic cavity. Which muscle is contracted during this movement?

A.   * m. iliopsoas

B.   m. lumbricales

C.   m. vastus lateralis

D.   m. vastus lateralis

E.   m. transversus abdominis

 

211.             This muscle is used to cross the legs; it flexes the leg, and flexes and laterally rotates the thigh.

A.   * sartorius

B.   adductor longus

C.   gracilis

D.   gluteus maximus

E.   vastus lateralis

 

212.             Two thigh muscles that are antagonists are the

A.   * rectus femoris and semimembranosus.

B.   rectus femoris and vastus lateralis.

C.   vastus medialis and vastus intermedius.

D.   adductor longus and vastus lateralis.

E.   gluteus maximus and semitendinosus.

 

213.             Which of these muscles is NOT used as an injection site?

A.   * gluteus maximus

B.   deltoid

C.   gluteus medius

D.   vastus lateralis

E.   gracilis

 

Text questions for pictures

Figures. Anatomy of musculoskeletal system  

 

 

 

1.    What is indicated  on figure 20 with number 1?

A.    Pars tympanica

B.    Pars petrosa

C.   Sulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Pars squamosa

 

2.    What is indicated  on figure 20 with number 5?

A.    Pars squamosa

B.    Pars petrosa

C.   Sulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Pars tympanica

 

3.    What is indicated  on figure 20 with number 2?

A.    Pars squamosa

B.    Pars petrosa

C.   Sulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Processus zygomaticus

 

4.    What is indicated  on figure 20 with number 3?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Pars petrosa

C.   Sulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Tuberculum articulare

 

5.    What is indicated  on figure 20 with number 6?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Pars petrosa

C.   Sulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Processus styloideus

 

6.    What is indicated  on figure 20 with number 7?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Pars petrosa

C.   DSulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus styloideus

E.    *Processus mastoideus

 

7.    What is indicated  on figure 20 with number 10?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Processus mastoideus

C.   Sulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus styloideus

E.    *Foramen mastoideum

 

8.    What is indicated  on figure 21 with number 3?

A.    Pars squamosa

B.    Pars tympanica

C.   Sulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Pars petrosa

 

9.    What is indicated  on figure 21 with number 16?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Processus mastoideus

C.   Foramen mastoideum

D.   Eminentia arcuata

E.    *Impressio trigemini

 

10. What is indicated  on figure 21 with number 13?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Pars petrosa

C.   Sulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Processus styloideus

 

11. What is indicated  on figure 21 with number 8?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Processus mastoideus

C.   Sulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus styloideus

E.    *Foramen mastoideum

 

12. What is indicated  on figure 21 with number 5?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Processus mastoideus

C.   Foramen mastoideum

D.   Processus styloideus

E.    *Eminentia arcuata

 

13. What is indicated  on figure 21 with number 3?

A.    Pars squamosa

B.    Pars tympanica

C.   Sulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Pyramis

 

14. What is indicated  on figure 22 with number 9?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Eminentia arcuata

C.   Foramen mastoideum

D.   Processus styloideus

E.    *Processus mastoideus

 

15. What is indicated  on figure 22 with number 15?

A.    Pars squamosa

B.    Pars petrosa

C.   Sulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Processus zygomaticus

 

16. What is indicated  on figure 22 with number 12?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Pars petrosa

C.   Sulcus a. temporalis mediae

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Processus styloideus

 

17. What is indicated  on figure 22 with number 5?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Pars petrosa

C.   Processus styloideus

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Fossa jugularis

 

18. What is indicated  on figure 22 with number 6?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Pars petrosa

C.   Processus styloideus

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Incisura jugularis

 

19. What is indicated  on figure 22 with number 1?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Processus styloideus

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Canalis caroticus

 

20. What is indicated  on figure 22 with number 10?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Processus styloideus

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Foramen stylomastoideum

 

21. What is indicated  on figure 21 with number 1?

A.    Margo occipitalis

B.    Margo sphenoidalis

C.   Margo superior partis petrosae

D.   Margo frontalis

E.    *Margo parietalis

 

22. What is indicated  on figure 21 with number 2?

A.    Margo parietalis

B.    Margo sphenoidalis

C.   Margo superior partis petrosae

D.   Margo frontalis

E.    *Margo occipitalis

 

23. What is indicated  on figure 21 with number 4?

A.    Margo parietalis

B.    Margo occipitalis

C.   Margo superior partis petrosae

D.   Margo frontalis

E.    *Margo sphenoidalis

 

24. What is indicated  on figure 21 with number 7?

A.    Margo parietalis

B.    Margo occipitalis

C.   Margo sphenoidalis

D.   Margo frontalis

E.    *Margo superior partis petrosae

 

25. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 1?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *processus frontalis

 

26. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 10?

A.    processus frontalis

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *processus alveolaris

 

27. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 11?

A.    processus frontalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *processus zygomaticus

 

28. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 8?

A.    processus frontalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *spina nasalis anterior

 

29. What is indicated  on figure 33 with number 5?

A.    processus frontalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   spina nasalis anterior

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *processus palatinus

 

30. What is indicated  on figure 33 with number 7?

A.    processus frontalis

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *processus alveolaris

 

31. What is indicated  on figure 33 with number 12?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *processus frontalis

 

32. What is indicated  on figure 33 with number 10?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *crista conchalis

 

33. What is indicated  on figure 33 with number 10?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *crista conchalis

 

34. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 2?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *crista lacrimalis anterior

 

35. What is indicated  on figure 33 with number 11?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *crista ethmoidalis

 

36. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 9?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *juga alveolaris

 

37. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 12?

A.    processus frontalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *tuber maxillae

 

38. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 3?

A.    processus frontalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *margo infraorbitalis

 

39. What is indicated  on figure 33 with number 1?

A.    processus frontalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   processus palatinus

D.   spina nasalis anterior

E.    *margo lacrimalis

 

40. What is indicated  on figure 23 with number 2?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Processus styloideus

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Cavum tympani

 

41. What is indicated  on figure 23 with number 5?

A.    Processus zygomaticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Cavum tympani

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Canalis caroticus

 

42. What is indicated  on figure 23 with number 7?

A.    Canalis caroticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Cavum tympani

D.   Processus mastoideus

E.    *Fossa jugularis

 

43. What is indicated  on figure 23 with number 8?

A.    Canalis caroticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Cavum tympani

D.   Fossa jugularis

E.    *Canalis facialis

 

44. What is indicated  on figure 23 with number 9?

A.    Canalis caroticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Cavum tympani

D.   Fossa jugularis

E.    *Cellulae mastoideae

 

45. What is indicated  on figure 23 with number 10?

A.    Canalis caroticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Cavum tympani

D.   Fossa jugularis

E.    *Antrum mastoideum

 

46. What is indicated  on figure 23 with number 11?

A.    Canalis caroticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Cavum tympani

D.   Fossa jugularis

E.    *Tegmen tympani

 

47. What is indicated  on figure 23 with number 6?

A.    Canalis caroticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Cavum tympani

D.   Fossa jugularis

E.    *Semicanalis tubae auditivae

 

48. What is indicated  on figure 23 with number 1?

A.    Canalis caroticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Cavum tympani

D.   Fossa jugularis

E.    *Promontorium

 

49. What is indicated  on figure 34 with number 1?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista ethmoidalis

E.    *processus orbitalis

 

50. What is indicated  on figure 34 with number 5?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista ethmoidalis

E.    *processus pyramidalis

 

51. What is indicated  on figure 34 with number 5?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista ethmoidalis

E.    *processus pyramidalis

 

52. What is indicated  on figure 34 with number 6?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista ethmoidalis

E.    *processus sphenoidalis

 

53. What is indicated  on figure 34 with number 8?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista ethmoidalis

E.    *crista conchalis

 

54. What is indicated  on figure 34 with number 8?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista ethmoidalis

E.    *crista conchalis

 

55. What is indicated  on figure 34 with number 9?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista conchalis

E.    *crista ethmoidalis

 

56. What is indicated  on figure 35 with number 1?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   D. processus palatinus

D.   E. *crista conchalis

E.    *foramen incisivum

 

57. What is indicated  on figure 35 with number 3?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista conchalis

E.    *processus palatinus maxillae

 

58. What is indicated  on figure 35 with number 11?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista conchalis

E.    *processus alveolaris maxillae

 

59. What is indicated  on figure 35 with number 7?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista conchalis

E.    *spina nasalis posterior

 

60. What is indicated  on figure 40 with number 1?

A.    processus maxillaries

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus ethmoidalis

E.    *processus lacrimalis

 

61. What is indicated  on figure 40 with number 2?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus ethmoidalis

E.    *processus maxillaries

 

62. What is indicated  on figure 40 with number 3?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *processus ethmoidalis

 

63. What is indicated  on figure 40 with number 3?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *processus ethmoidalis

 

64. What is indicated  on figure 36 with number 1?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *processus frontalis

 

65. What is indicated  on figure 36 with number 4?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus frontalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *processus temporalis

 

66. What is indicated  on figure 36 with number 3?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus frontalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *facies temporalis

 

67. What is indicated  on figure 36 with number 3?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus frontalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *facies temporalis

 

68. What is indicated  on figure 41 with number 9?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus frontalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *processus condylaris

 

69. What is indicated  on figure 41 with number 10?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus frontalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *processus coronoideus

 

70. What is indicated  on figure 41 with number 1?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus frontalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *caput mandibulae

 

71. What is indicated  on figure 41 with number 2?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus frontalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *collum mandibulae

 

72. What is indicated  on figure 41 with number 3?

A.    collum mandibulae

B.    processus frontalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *tuberositas pterygoidea

 

73. What is indicated  on figure 41 with number 7?

A.    collum mandibulae

B.    tuberositas pterygoidea

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *angulus mandibulae

 

74. What is indicated  on figure 41 with number 11?

A.    collum mandibulae

B.    tuberositas pterygoidea

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *foramen mandibulae

 

75. What is indicated  on figure 34 with number 2?

A.    processus alveolaris

B.    crista conchalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista ethmoidalis

E.    *lamina perpendicularis

 

76. What is indicated  on figure 34 with number 3?

A.    lamina perpendicularis

B.    crista conchalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista ethmoidalis

E.    *lamina horizontalis

 

77. What is indicated  on figure 34 with number 4?

A.    lamina perpendicularis

B.    crista conchalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   lamina horizontalis

E.    *sulcus palatinus major

 

78. What is indicated  on figure 34 with number 7?

A.    sulcus palatinus major

B.    crista conchalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   lamina horizontalis

E.    *incisura sphenopalatina

 

79. What is indicated  on figure 35 with number 2?

A.    processus alveolaris maxillae

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista conchalis

E.    *sutura incisive

 

80. What is indicated  on figure 35 with number 4?

A.    processus alveolaris maxillae

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista conchalis

E.    *torus palatinus

 

81. What is indicated  on figure 35 with number 6?

A.    processus alveolaris maxillae

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista conchalis

E.    *sutura palatina transversa

 

82. What is indicated  on figure 35 with number 12?

A.    sutura palatina transversa

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista conchalis

E.    *sutura palatina mediana

 

83. What is indicated  on figure 35 with number 9?

A.    sutura palatina transversa

B.    processus zygomaticus

C.   processus palatinus

D.   crista conchalis

E.    *foramen palatinum majus

 

84. What is indicated  on figure 33 with number 2?

A.    processus frontalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   spina nasalis anterior

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *sulcus lacrimalis

 

85. What is indicated  on figure 33 with number 3?

A.    sulcus lacrimalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   spina nasalis anterior

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *hiatus maxillaris

 

86. What is indicated  on figure 33 with number 4?

A.    sulcus lacrimalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   spina nasalis anterior

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *sulcus palatinus major

 

87. What is indicated  on figure 33 with number 8?

A.    sulcus lacrimalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   spina nasalis anterior

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *canalis incisivus

 

88. What is indicated  on figure 33 with number 9?

A.    sulcus lacrimalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   spina nasalis anterior

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *facies nasalis

 

89. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 4?

A.    sulcus lacrimalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   spina nasalis anterior

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *facies anterior

 

90. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 5?

A.    sulcus lacrimalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   spina nasalis anterior

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *foramen infraorbitale

 

91. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 6?

A.    sulcus lacrimalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   spina nasalis anterior

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *fossa canina

 

92. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 7?

A.    sulcus lacrimalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   spina nasalis anterior

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *incisura nasalis

 

93. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 13?

A.    sulcus lacrimalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   spina nasalis anterior

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *sulcus infraorbitalis

 

94. What is indicated  on figure 32 with number 14?

A.    sulcus lacrimalis

B.    processus alveolaris

C.   spina nasalis anterior

D.   processus zygomaticus

E.    *facies orbitalis

 

95. What is indicated  on figure 41 with number 7?

A.    collum mandibulae

B.    tuberositas pterygoidea

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *angulus mandibulae

 

96. What is indicated  on figure 41 with number 11?

A.    collum mandibulae

B.    tuberositas pterygoidea

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *foramen mandibulae

 

97. What is indicated  on figure 36 with number 3?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus frontalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *facies temporalis

 

98. What is indicated  on figure 36 with number 6?

A.    processus lacrimalis

B.    processus frontalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *facies orbitalis

 

99. What is indicated  on figure 36 with number 7?

A.    facies orbitalis

B.    processus frontalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *facies lateralis

 

100.             What is indicated  on figure 36 with number 7?

A.    facies orbitalis

B.    processus frontalis

C.   processus palatinus

D.   processus maxillaries

E.    *facies lateralis

 

101.             What is indicated  on figure 23 with number 4?

A.    Canalis caroticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Cavum tympani

D.   Fossa jugularis

E.    *Impressio trigeminalis

 

102.             What is indicated  on figure 22 with number 7?

A.    Canalis caroticus

B.    Incisura jugularis

C.   Cavum tympani

D.   Fossa jugularis

E.    *Sulcus arteriae occipitalis

 

103.             What is indicated  on figure 80 with number 1?

A.    lig. sacroiliacum posterius

B.    lig. sacrospinale

C.   capsula articularis

D.   zona orbicularis

E.    *lig. iliolumbale

 

104.             What is indicated  on figure 80 with number 2?

A.    Lig. sacrospinale

B.    Capsula articularis

C.   Zona orbicularis

D.   Lig. sacrotuberale

E.    *Lig. sacroiliacum posterius

 

105.             What is indicated  on figure 80 with number 5?

A.    Capsula articularis

B.    Zona orbicularis

C.   Lig. sacrotuberale

D.   Membrana obturatoria

E.    *Lig. sacrospinale

 

106.             What is indicated  on figure 80 with number 6?

A.    zona orbicularis

B.    lig. sacrotuberale

C.   membrana obturatoria

D.   lig. iliolumbale

E.    *capsula articularis

 

107.             What is indicated  on figure 80 with number 7?

A.    lig. sacrotuberale

B.    membrana obturatoria

C.   lig. iliolumbale

D.   lig. sacroiliacum posterius

E.    *zona orbicularis

 

108.             What is indicated  on figure 80 with number 10?

A.    Membrana obturatoria

B.    Lig. iliolumbale

C.   Lig. sacroiliacum posterius

D.   Lig. sacrospinale

E.    *Lig. sacrotuberale

 

109.             What is indicated  on figure 80 with number 11?

A.    Lig. iliolumbale

B.    Lig. sacroiliacum posterius

C.   Lig. sacrospinale

D.   Capsula articularis

E.    *Membrana obturatoria

 

110.             What is indicated  on figure 81 with number 1?

A.    Diameter transversa

B.    Distantia interspinosa

C.   Conjugata vera

D.   Diameter obliqua

E.    *Distantia intercristalis

 

111.             What is indicated  on figure 81 with number 2?

A.    distantia interspinosa

B.    сonjugata vera

C.   diameter obliqua

D.   distantia intertrochanterica

E.    *diameter transversa

 

112.             What is indicated  on figure 81 with number 3?

A.    donjugata vera

B.    diameter obliqua

C.   distantia intertrochanterica

D.   distantia intercristalis

E.    *distantia interspinosa

 

113.             What is indicated  on figure 81 with number 4?

A.    Diameter obliqua

B.    Distantia intertrochanterica

C.   Distantia intercristalis

D.   Diameter transversa

E.    *Conjugata vera

 

114.             What is indicated  on figure 81 with number 5?

A.    Distantia intertrochanterica

B.    Distantia intercristalis

C.   Diameter transversa

D.   Distantia interspinosa

E.    *Diameter obliqua

 

115.             What is indicated  on figure 81 with number 6?

A.    Distantia intercristalis

B.    Diameter transversa

C.   Distantia interspinosa

D.   Conjugata vera

E.    *Distantia intertrochanterica

 

116.             What is indicated  on figure 82 with number 1?

A.    diameter recta (порожнини тазу)

B.    conjugata diagonalis

C.   conjugata anatomica

D.   conjugata vera (gynaecologica)

E.    *diameter recta (вихід з тазу)

 

117.             What is indicated  on figure 82 with number 3?

A.    conjugata diagonalis

B.    conjugata anatomica

C.   conjugata vera (gynaecologica)

D.   diameter recta (вихід з тазу)

E.    *diameter recta (порожнини тазу)

 

118.             What is indicated  on figure 82 with number 4?

A.    Conjugata anatomica

B.    Conjugata vera (gynaecologica)

C.   Diameter recta (вихід з тазу)

D.   Diameter recta (порожнини тазу)

E.    *Conjugata diagonalis

 

119.             What is indicated  on figure 82 with number 5?

A.    onjugata diagonalis

B.    onjugata vera (gynaecologica)

C.   Diameter recta (вихід з тазу)

D.   Diameter recta (порожнини тазу)

E.    *Conjugata anatomica

 

120.             What is indicated  on figure 82 with number 6?

A.    onjugata diagonalis

B.    onjugata anatomica

C.   Diameter recta (вихід з тазу)

D.   Diameter recta (порожнини тазу)

E.    *Conjugata vera (gynaecologica)

 

121.             What is indicated  on figure 83 with number 1?

A.    Caput femoris

B.    Zona orbicularis

C.   Collum femoris

D.   Lig. capitis femoris

E.    *Labrum acetabuli

 

122.             What is indicated  on figure 83 with number 2?

A.    Zona orbicularis

B.    Collum femoris

C.   Lig. capitis femoris

D.   Labrum acetabuli

E.    *Caput femoris

 

123.             What is indicated  on figure 83 with number 3?

A.    Caput femoris

B.    Collum femoris

C.   Lig. capitis femoris

D.   Labrum acetabuli

E.    *Zona orbicularis

 

124.             What is indicated  on figure 83 with number 4?

A.    Caput femoris

B.    Zona orbicularis

C.   Labrum acetabuli

D.   Lig. capitis femoris

E.    *Collum femoris

 

125.             What is indicated  on figure 83 with number 5?

A.    Caput femoris

B.    Zona orbicularis

C.   Collum femoris

D.   Labrum acetabuli

E.    *Lig. capitis femoris

 

126.             What is indicated  on figure 84 with number 1?

A.    Lig. cruciatum anterius

B.    Meniscus medialis

C.   Lig. transversum genus

D.   Lig. collaterale tibiale

E.    *Lig. cruciatum posterius

 

127.             What is indicated  on figure 84 with number 2?

A.    meniscus medialis

B.    lig. transversum genus

C.   lig. collaterale tibiale

D.   bursa infrapatellaris profunda

E.    *lig. cruciatum anterius

 

128.             What is indicated  on figure 84 with number 3?

A.    Lig. transversum genus

B.    Lig. collaterale tibiale

C.   Bursa infrapatellaris profunda

D.   Lig. patellae

E.    *Meniscus medialis

 

129.             What is indicated  on figure 84 with number 4?

A.    Lig. collaterale tibiale

B.    Bursa infrapatellaris profunda

C.   Lig. patellae

D.   Facies articularis patellae

E.    *Lig. transversum genus

 

130.             What is indicated  on figure 84 with number 5?

A.    Bursa infrapatellaris profunda

B.    Lig. patellae

C.   Facies articularis patellae

D.   Lig. capitis fibulae anterius

E.    *Lig. collaterale tibiale

 

131.             What is indicated  on figure 84 with number 6?

A.    Lig. patellae

B.    Facies articularis patellae

C.   Lig. capitis fibulae anterius

D.   Lig. collaterale fibulare

E.    *Bursa infrapatellaris profunda

 

132.             What is indicated  on figure 84 with number 7?

A.    Facies articularis patellae

B.    Lig. capitis fibulae anterius

C.   Lig. collaterale fibulare

D.   Meniscus lateralis

E.    *Lig. patellae

 

133.             What is indicated  on figure 84 with number 8?

A.    lig. capitis fibulae anterius

B.    lig. collaterale fibulare

C.   meniscus lateralis

D.   condylus lateralis

E.    *facies articularis patellae

 

134.             What is indicated  on figure 84 with number 9?

A.    lig. collaterale fibulare

B.    meniscus lateralis

C.   condylus lateralis

D.   lig. cruciatum anterius

E.    *lig. capitis fibulae anterius

 

135.             What is indicated  on figure 84 with number 10?

A.    Meniscus lateralis

B.    Condylus lateralis

C.   Lig. cruciatum anterius

D.   Lig. capitis fibulae anterius

E.    *Lig. collaterale fibulare

 

136.             What is indicated  on figure 84 with number 11?

A.    Lig. cruciatum anterius

B.    Meniscus medialis

C.   Lig. transversum genus

D.   Lig. collaterale tibiale

E.    *Condylus lateralis

 

137.             What is indicated  on figure 85 with number 1?

A.    Meniscus lateralis

B.    Lig. cruciatum anterius

C.   Lig. cruciatum posterius

D.   Meniscus medialis

E.    *uberositas tibiae

 

138.             What is indicated  on figure 85 with number 2?

A.    Lig. cruciatum anterius

B.    Lig. cruciatum posterius

C.   Meniscus medialis

D.   Tuberositas tibiae

E.    *Meniscus lateralis

 

139.             What is indicated  on figure 85 with number 3?

A.    Meniscus lateralis

B.    Tuberositas tibiae

C.   Lig. cruciatum posterius

D.   Lig. tranaversum genus

E.    *Lig. cruciatum anterius

 

140.             What is indicated  on figure 85 with number 4?

A.    Meniscus lateralis

B.    Lig. cruciatum anterius

C.   Tuberositas tibiae

D.   Lig. tranaversum genus

E.    *Lig. cruciatum posterius

 

141.             What is indicated  on figure 85 with number 5?

A.    Meniscus lateralis

B.    Lig. cruciatum anterius

C.   Lig. cruciatum posterius

D.   Tuberositas tibiae

E.    *Lig. tranaversum genus

 

142.             What is indicated  on figure 86 with number 1?

A.    Bursa suprapatellaris

B.    Bursa prepatellaris subcutanea

C.   Lig. Patellae

D.   Bursa infrapatellaris profunda

E.    *Tendo m. quadricipitis fernoris

 

143.             What is indicated  on figure 86 with number 2?

A.    Bursa prepatellaris subcutanea

B.    Lig. Patellae

C.   Bursa infrapatellaris profunda

D.   Meniscus lateralis

E.    *Bursa suprapatellaris

 

144.             What is indicated  on figure 86 with number 1?

A.    Lig. patellae;

B.    Bursa infrapatellaris profunda;

C.   Meniscus lateralis;

D.   Bursa m. poplitei;

E.    *Bursa prepatellaris subcutanea;

 

145.             What is indicated  on figure 86 with number 4?

A.    Bursa infrapatellaris profunda;

B.    Meniscus lateralis;

C.   Bursa m. poplitei;

D.   Tendo m. poplitei;

E.    *Lig. patellae;

 

146.             What is indicated  on figure 86 with number 5?

A.    Meniscus lateralis;

B.    Bursa m. poplitei;

C.   Tendo m. poplitei;

D.   Lig. collaterale fibulare;

E.    *ursa infrapatellaris profunda;

 

147.             What is indicated  on figure 86 with number 7?

A.    Bursa m. poplitei;

B.    Tendo m. poplitei;

C.   Lig. collaterale fibulare;

D.   Tendo m. quadricipitis fernoris;

E.    *Meniscus lateralis;

 

148.             What is indicated  on figure 86 with number 9?

A.    Tendo m. poplitei;

B.    Lig. collaterale fibulare;

C.   Tendo m. quadricipitis fernoris;

D.   Bursa suprapatellaris;

E.    *Bursa m. poplitei;

 

149.             What is indicated  on figure 86 with number 10?

A.    Lig. collaterale fibulare;

B.    Tendo m. quadricipitis fernoris;

C.   Bursa suprapatellaris;

D.   Bursa prepatellaris subcutanea;

E.    *Tendo m. poplitei;

 

150.             What is indicated  on figure 86 with number 11?

A.    Tendo m. quadricipitis fernoris;

B.    Bursa suprapatellaris;

C.   Bursa prepatellaris subcutanea;

D.   Lig. patellae;

E.    *Lig. collaterale fibulare;

 

151.             What is indicated  on figure 87 with number 1?

A.    Membrana interossea cruris

B.    Lig. capitis fibulae anterius.

C.   Lig. collaterale fibulare

D.   Lig. Patellae

E.    *Fibia

 

152.             What is indicated  on figure 87 with number 2?

A.    Membrana interossea cruris

B.    Lig. capitis fibulae anterius.

C.   Lig. collaterale fibulare

D.   Lig. Patellae

E.    *Lig. tibiofibulare anterius

 

153.             What is indicated  on figure 87 with number 4?

A.    lig. tibiofibulare anterius

B.    lig. capitis fibulae anterius.

C.   lig. collaterale fibulare

D.   lig. patellae

E.    *Membrana interossea cruris

 

154.             What is indicated  on figure 87 with number 5?

A.    Lig. tibiofibulare anterius

B.    Membrana interossea cruris

C.   Lig. collaterale fibulare

D.   Lig. Patellae

E.    *Lig. capitis fibulae anterius

 

155.             What is indicated  on figure 88 with number 2?

A.    lig. talofibulare posterius

B.    lig. calcaneofibulare

C.   lig. talocalcaneum posterius

D.   tendo m. flexoris hallucis longi

E.    *lig. tibiofibulare posterius

 

156.             What is indicated  on figure 88 with number 3?

A.    Lig. calcaneofibulare

B.    Lig. talocalcaneum posterius

C.   Tendo m. flexoris hallucis longi

D.   Lig. talocalcaneum mediale

E.    *Lig. talofibulare posterius

 

157.             What is indicated  on figure 88 with number 4?

A.    Lig. talocalcaneum posterius

B.    Tendo m. flexoris hallucis longi

C.   Lig. talocalcaneum mediale

D.   Lig. collaterale mediale (deltoideum)

E.    *Lig. calcaneofibulare

 

158.             What is indicated  on figure 88 with number 7?

A.    Tendo m. flexoris hallucis longi

B.    Lig. talocalcaneum mediale

C.   Lig. collaterale mediale (deltoideum)

D.   Lig. tibiofibulare posterius

E.    *Lig. talocalcaneum posterius

 

159.             What is indicated  on figure 88 with number 8?

A.    lig. talocalcaneum mediale

B.    lig. collaterale mediale (deltoideum)

C.   lig. tibiofibulare posterius

D.   lig. talofibulare posterius

E.    *tendo m. flexoris hallucis longi

 

160.             What is indicated  on figure 88 with number 9?

A.    lig. collaterale mediale (deltoideum)

B.    lig. tibiofibulare posterius

C.   lig. talofibulare posterius

D.   lig. calcaneofibulare

E.    *lig. talocalcaneum mediale

 

161.             What is indicated  on figure 88 with number 10?

A.    Lig. tibiofibulare posterius

B.    Lig. talofibulare posterius

C.   Lig. calcaneofibulare

D.   Lig. talocalcaneum posterius

E.    *Lig. collaterale mediale (deltoideum)

 

162.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 1?

A.    Lig. collaterale mediale (deltoideum)

B.    Art. Talonavicularis

C.   Аrt. Cuneonavicularis

D.   Аrtt. Tarsometatarsales

E.    *Аrt. Talocruralis

 

163.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 2?

A.    Art. Talonavicularis

B.    Art. Cuneonavicularis

C.   Artt. Tarsometatarsales

D.   Artt. Metatarsophalangea

E.    *Lig. collaterale mediale (deltoideum)

 

164.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 3?

A.    Art. Cuneonavicularis

B.    Artt. Tarsometatarsales

C.   Artt. Metatarsophalangea

D.   Artt. Interphalangea

E.    *Art. Talonavicularis

 

165.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 4?

A.    Artt. Tarsometatarsales

B.    Artt. Metatarsophalangea

C.   Artt. Interphalangea

D.   Ligg. metatarsalia interossea

E.    *Art. Cuneonavicularis

 

166.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 5?

A.    Artt. Metatarsophalangea

B.    Artt. Interphalangea

C.   Ligg. metatarsalia interossea

D.   Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsal

E.    *Artt. Tarsometatarsales

 

167.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 6?

A.    Artt. Interphalangea

B.    Ligg. metatarsalia interossea

C.   Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsal

D.   Art. Calcaneocuboidea

E.    *Artt. Metatarsophalangea

 

168.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 7?

A.    Ligg. metatarsalia interossea

B.    Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsal

C.   Art. Calcaneocuboidea

D.   Lig. Bifurcatum

E.    *Artt. Interphalangea

 

169.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 8?

A.    Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsal

B.    Art. Calcaneocuboidea

C.   Lig. Bifurcatum

D.   Lig. talocalcaneum interosseum

E.    *Fossa metatarsalia

 

170.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 9?

A.    Art. Calcaneocuboidea

B.    Lig. Bifurcatum

C.   Lig. talocalcaneum interosseum

D.   Lig. talofibulare posterius

E.    *Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsal

 

171.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 10?

A.    Lig. Bifurcatum

B.    Lig. talocalcaneum interosseum

C.   Lig. talofibulare posterius

D.   Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsal

E.    *rt. Calcaneocuboidea

 

172.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 11?

A.    Lig. talocalcaneum interosseum

B.    Lig. talofibulare posterius

C.   Ligg. metatarsalia interossea

D.   Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsal

E.    *Lig. Bifurcatum

 

173.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 12?

A.    Lig. talofibulare posterius

B.    Ligg. metatarsalia interossea

C.   Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsal

D.   Lig. Bifurcatum

E.    *Lig. talocalcaneum interosseum

 

174.             What is indicated  on figure 89 with number 13?

A.    Ligg. metatarsalia interossea

B.    Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsal

C.   Lig. Bifurcatum

D.   Lig. talocalcaneum interosseum

E.    *Lig. talofibulare posterius

 

175.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 1?

A.    Lig. mediale

B.    Lig. talonaviculare

C.   Lig. bifurcatum

D.   Ligg. cuneonavicularia dorsalia

E.    *rt. talocruralis

 

176.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 2?

A.    Lig. talonaviculare

B.    Lig. bifurcatum

C.   Ligg. cuneonavicularia dorsalia

D.   Ligg. intercuneiformia dorsalia

E.    *Lig. mediale

 

177.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 3?

A.    lig. bifurcatum

B.    ligg. cuneonavicularia dorsalia

C.   ligg. intercuneiformia dorsalia

D.   ligg. Collateralia

E.    *lig. talonaviculare

 

178.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 4?

A.    Ligg. cuneonavicularia dorsalia

B.    Ligg. intercuneiformia dorsalia

C.   Ligg. collateralia

D.   Art. Metatarsophalangeal

E.    *Lig. bifurcatum

 

179.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 5?

A.    Ligg. intercuneiformia dorsalia

B.    Ligg. collateralia

C.   Art. metatarsophalangeal

D.   Ligg. metatarsalia dorsalia

E.    *Ligg. cuneonavicularia dorsalia

 

180.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 6?

A.    Ligg. collateralia

B.    Art. metatarsophalangeal

C.   Ligg. metatarsalia dorsalia

D.   Ligg. tarsometatarsalia dorsalia

E.    *Ligg. intercuneiformia dorsalia

 

181.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 7?

A.    Art. metatarsophalangeal

B.    Ligg. metatarsalia dorsalia

C.   Ligg. tarsometatarsalia dorsalia

D.   Lig. cuneocuboideum dorsale

E.    *Ligg. collateralia

 

182.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 8?

A.    Ligg. metatarsalia dorsalia

B.    Ligg. tarsometatarsalia dorsalia

C.   Lig. cuneocuboideum dorsale

D.   Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsale

E.    *rt. metatarsophalangeal IV

 

183.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 9?

A.    Ligg. tarsometatarsalia dorsalia

B.    Lig. cuneocuboideum dorsale

C.   Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsale

D.   Lig. calcancocuboideum dorsale

E.    *Ligg. metatarsalia dorsalia         

 

184.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 10?

A.    Lig. cuneocuboideum dorsale

B.    Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsale

C.   Lig. calcancocuboideum dorsale

D.   Lig. talocalcaneum laterale

E.    *Ligg. tarsometatarsalia dorsalia

 

185.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 11?

A.    lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsale

B.    lig. calcancocuboideum dorsale

C.   lig. talocalcaneum laterale

D.   lig. calcaneofibulare

E.    *lig. cuneocuboideum dorsale

 

186.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 12?

A.    Lig. calcancocuboideum dorsale

B.    Lig. talocalcaneum laterale

C.   Lig. calcaneofibulare

D.   Lig. talofibulare anterius

E.    *Lig. cuboideonaviculare dorsale

 

187.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 13?

A.    Lig. talocalcaneum laterale

B.    Lig. calcaneofibulare        

C.   Lig. talofibulare anterius

D.   Lig. tibiofibulare anterius

E.    *Lig. calcancocuboideum dorsale

 

188.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 14?

A.    Lig. calcaneofibulare        

B.    Lig. talofibulare anterius

C.   Lig. tibiofibulare anterius

D.   Membrana interossea cruris

E.    *Lig. talocalcaneum laterale

 

189.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 15?

A.    Lig. talofibulare anterius

B.    Lig. tibiofibulare anterius

C.   Membrana interossea cruris

D.   Lig. Talonaviculare

E.    *Lig. calcaneofibulare

 

190.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 16?

A.    Lig. tibiofibulare anterius

B.    Membrana interossea cruris

C.   Lig. mediale

D.   Lig. talonaviculare

E.    *Lig. talofibulare anterius

 

191.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 18?

A.    Membrana interossea cruris

B.    Lig. mediale

C.   Lig. talonaviculare

D.   Lig. bifurcatum

E.    *Lig. tibiofibulare anterius

 

192.             What is indicated  on figure 90 with number 19?

A.    lig. mediale

B.    lig. talonaviculare

C.   lig. bifurcatum

D.   ligg. cuneonavicularia dorsalia

E.    *membrana interossea cruris

 

193.             What is indicated  on figure 91 with number 1?

A.    Art. Tarsometatarsalis

B.    Art. Cuneonavicularis

C.   Lig. cuneonaviculare plantare

D.   Lig. calcaneonaviculare plantare

E.    *Ligg. Plantaria

 

194.             What is indicated  on figure 91 with number 3?

A.    Art. Cuneonavicularis

B.    Lig. cuneonaviculare plantare

C.   Lig. calcaneonaviculare plantare

D.   Lig. plantare longum        

E.    *rt. Tarsometatarsalis

 

195.             What is indicated  on figure 91 with number 4?

A.    Lig. cuneonaviculare plantare

B.    Lig. calcaneonaviculare plantare

C.   Lig. plantare longum        

D.   Ligg. metatarsalia plantaria

E.    *rt. Cuneonavicularis

 

196.             What is indicated  on figure 91 with number 5?

A.    Lig. calcaneonaviculare plantare

B.    Lig. plantare longum        

C.   Ligg. metatarsalia plantaria

D.   Artt. Metatarsophalangeae

E.    *Lig. cuneonaviculare plantare

 

197.             What is indicated  on figure 91 with number 7?

A.    Lig. plantare longum        

B.    Ligg. metatarsalia plantaria

C.   Artt. Metatarsophalangeae

D.   Artt. Interphalangeae

E.    *Lig. calcaneonaviculare plantare

 

198.             What is indicated  on figure 91 with number 8?

A.    ligg. metatarsalia plantaria

B.    Artt. Metatarsophalangeae

C.   Artt. Interphalangeae

D.   ligg. Collateralia

E.    *lig. plantare longum

 

199.             What is indicated  on figure 91 with number 11?

A.    Artt. Metatarsophalangeae

B.    Artt. Interphalangeae

C.   Ligg. Collateralia

D.   Ligg. Plantaria

E.    *Ligg. metatarsalia plantaria

 

200.             What is indicated  on figure 91 with number 12?

A.    Artt. Interphalangeae

B.    Ligg. Collateralia

C.   Ligg. Plantaria

D.   Art. Tarsometatarsalis

E.    *rtt. Metatarsophalangeae

 

201.             What is indicated  on figure 91 with number 13?

A.    ligg. Collateralia

B.    ligg. Plantaria

C.   Art. Tarsometatarsalis

D.   Art. Cuneonavicularis

E.    *Artt. Interphalangeae

 

202.             What is indicated  on figure 91 with number 14?

A.    Ligg. Plantaria

B.    Art. Tarsometatarsalis

C.   Art. Cuneonavicularis

D.   Lig. cuneonaviculare plantare

E.    *Ligg. Collateralia

 

203.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 1?

A.    m. serratus anterior

B.    m. obliquus externus abdominis

C.   intersectiones tendineae

D.   m. rectus abdominis

E.    *mm. intercostales interni

 

204.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 2?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. obliquus externus abdominis

C.   intersectiones tendineae

D.   m. rectus abdominis

E.    *m. serratus anterior

 

205.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 3?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   intersectiones tendineae

D.   m. rectus abdominis

E.    *m. obliquus externus abdominis

 

206.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 4?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   m. rectus abdominis

E.    *intersectiones tendineae

 

207.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 5?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *m. rectus abdominis

 

208.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 6?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *anulus umbilicalis

 

209.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 7?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *m. obliquus internus abdominis

 

210.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 8?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *crista iliaca

 

211.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 9?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *m. pyramidalis

 

212.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 10?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *vagina m. recti (lamina anterior)

 

213.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 11?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *hiatus saphenus

 

214.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 12?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *funiculus spermaticus

 

215.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 13?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *lig. inguinale

 

216.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 14?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *fascia transversalis

 

217.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 15?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *linea arcuata

 

218.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 16?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *linea semilunaris

 

219.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 17?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *m. transversus abdominis

 

220.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 18?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *vagina m. recti (lamina posterior)

 

221.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 19?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *m. pectoralis major

 

222.             What is indicated  on figure 102 with number 20?

A.    mm. intercostales interni

B.    m. serratus anterior

C.   m. obliquus externus abdominis

D.   intersectiones tendineae

E.    *linea alba

 

223.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 1?

A.    lig. inguinale

B.    fibrae intercrurales

C.   crus mediale

D.   crus laterale

E.    *aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

 

224.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 2?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    fibrae intercrurales

C.   crus mediale

D.   crus laterale

E.    *lig. inguinale

 

225.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 3?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    lig. inguinale

C.   crus mediale

D.   crus laterale

E.    *fibrae intercrurales

 

226.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 4?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    lig. inguinale

C.   fibrae intercrurales

D.   crus laterale

E.    *crus mediale

 

227.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 5?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    lig. inguinale

C.   fibrae intercrurales

D.   crus mediale

E.    *crus laterale

 

228.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 6?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    lig. inguinale

C.   fibrae intercrurales

D.   crus mediale

E.    *funiculus spermaticus

 

229.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 7?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    lig. inguinale

C.   fibrae intercrurales

D.   crus mediale

E.    *fascia lata (lamina profunda)

 

230.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 8?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    lig. inguinale

C.   fibrae intercrurales

D.   crus mediale

E.    *cornu inferius

 

231.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 9?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    lig. inguinale

C.   fibrae intercrurales

D.   crus mediale

E.    *vena saphena magna

 

232.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 10?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    lig. inguinale

C.   fibrae intercrurales

D.   crus mediale

E.    *hiatus saphenus

 

233.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 11?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    lig. inguinale

C.   fibrae intercrurales

D.   crus mediale

E.    *margo falciformis

 

234.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 12?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    lig. inguinale

C.   fibrae intercrurales

D.   crus mediale

E.    *cornu superius

 

235.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 13?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    lig. inguinale

C.   fibrae intercrurales

D.   crus mediale

E.    *fascia lata (lamina superficialis)

 

236.             What is indicated  on figure 103 with number 14?

A.    aponeurosis m. obliqui externi abdominis

B.    lig. inguinale

C.   fibrae intercrurales

D.   crus mediale

E.    *spina iliaca anterior superior

 

237.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 1?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   os hyoideum

D.   m. thyrohyoideus

E.    *venter anterior m. digastrici

 

238.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 2?

A.    venter anterior m. digastrici

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   os hyoideum

D.   m. thyrohyoideus

E.    *m. mylohyoideus

 

239.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 3?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   os hyoideum

D.   m. thyrohyoideus

E.    *venter anterior m. digastrici

 

240.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 4?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   m. thyrohyoideus

E.    *os hyoideum

 

241.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 5?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. thyrohyoideus

 

242.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 6?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *venter superior m. omohyoidei

 

243.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 7?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *cartilago thyroidea

 

244.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 8?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. sternohyoideus

 

245.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 9?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *glandula thyroidea

 

246.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 10?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. sternocleidomastoideus

 

247.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 11?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *pars sternalis m. sternocleidomastoidei

 

248.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 12?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *pars clavicularis m. sternocleidomastoidei

 

249.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 13?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *clavicula

 

250.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 14?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. pectoralis major

 

251.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 15?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *venter inferior m. omohyoidei

 

252.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 16?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. deltoideus

 

253.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 17?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. trapezius

 

254.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 18?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. scalenus anterior

 

255.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 19?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. scalenus medius

 

256.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 20?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. scalenus posterior

 

257.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 21?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. levator scapulae

 

258.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 22?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. splenius capitis

 

259.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 23?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. semispinalis capitis

 

260.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 24?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *venter posterior m. digastrici

 

261.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 25?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *processus styloideus

 

262.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 26?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. stylohyoideus

 

263.             What is indicated  on figure 104 with number 27?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. styloglossus

C.   venter anterior m. digastrici

D.   os hyoideum

E.    *m. styloglossus

 

264.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 1?

A.    os hyoideum

B.    m. levator scapulae

C.   larynx

D.   m. sternothyroideus

E.    *m. mylohyoideus

 

265.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 2?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    m. levator scapulae

C.   larynx

D.   m. sternothyroideus

E.    *os hyoideum

 

266.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 3?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   larynx

D.   m. sternothyroideus

E.    *m. levator scapulae

 

267.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 4?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   m. sternothyroideus

E.    *larynx

 

268.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 5?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *m. sternothyroideus

 

269.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 6?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *m. sternohyoideus

 

270.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 7?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *glandula thyroidea

 

271.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 8?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *manubrium sterni

 

272.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 9?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *sternum

 

273.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 10?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *clavicula

 

274.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 11?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *processus coracoideus

 

275.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 12?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *acromion

 

276.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 13?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *m. omohyoideus

 

277.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 14?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *m. scalenus posterior

 

278.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 15?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *m. scalenus medius

 

279.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 16?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *m. scalenus anterior

 

280.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 17?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *m. thyrohyoideus

 

281.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 18?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *m. sternocleidomastoideus

 

282.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 19?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *venter posterior m. digastrici

 

283.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 20?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *m. stylohyoideus

 

284.             What is indicated  on figure 105 with number 21?

A.    m. mylohyoideus

B.    os hyoideum

C.   m. levator scapulae

D.   larynx

E.    *venter anterior m. digastrici

 

285.             What is indicated  on figure 106 with number 1?

A.    venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

B.    m. orbicularis oculi

C.   m. levator labii superioris

D.   m. zygomaticus minor

E.    *galea aponeurotica

 

286.             What is indicated  on figure 106 with number 2?

A.    galea aponeurotica

B.    m. orbicularis oculi

C.   m. levator labii superioris

D.   m. zygomaticus minor

E.    *venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

 

287.             What is indicated  on figure 106 with number 3?

A.    galea aponeurotica

B.    venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

C.   m. levator labii superioris

D.   m. zygomaticus minor

E.    *m. orbicularis oculi

 

288.             What is indicated  on figure 106 with number 4?

A.    galea aponeurotica

B.    venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

C.   m. orbicularis oculi

D.   m. zygomaticus minor

E.    *m. levator labii superioris

 

289.             What is indicated  on figure 106 with number 5?

A.    galea aponeurotica

B.    venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

C.   m. orbicularis oculi

D.   m. levator labii superioris

E.    *m. zygomaticus minor

 

290.             What is indicated  on figure 106 with number 6?

A.    galea aponeurotica

B.    venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

C.   m. orbicularis oculi

D.   m. levator labii superioris

E.    *m. zygomaticus major

 

291.             What is indicated  on figure 106 with number 7?

A.    galea aponeurotica

B.    venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

C.   m. orbicularis oculi

D.   m. levator labii superioris

E.    *m. orbicularis oris

 

292.             What is indicated  on figure 106 with number 8?

A.    galea aponeurotica

B.    venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

C.   m. orbicularis oculi

D.   m. levator labii superioris

E.    *m. depressor anguli oris

 

293.             What is indicated  on figure 106 with number 9?

A.    galea aponeurotica

B.    venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

C.   m. orbicularis oculi

D.   m. levator labii superioris

E.    *m. risorius

 

294.             What is indicated  on figure 107 with number 1?

A.    galea aponeurotica

B.    venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

C.   m. orbicularis oculi

D.   m. levator labii superioris

E.    *m. pterygoideus lateralis

 

295.             What is indicated  on figure 107 with number 2?

A.    m. pterygoideus lateralis

B.    venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

C.   m. orbicularis oculi

D.   m. levator labii superioris

E.    *galea aponeurotica

 

296.             What is indicated  on figure 107 with number 3?

A.    m. pterygoideus lateralis

B.    galea aponeurotica

C.   m. orbicularis oculi

D.   m. levator labii superioris

E.    *venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

 

297.             What is indicated  on figure 107 with number 4?

A.    m. pterygoideus lateralis

B.    galea aponeurotica

C.   venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

D.   m. levator labii superioris

E.    *m. orbicularis oculi

 

298.             What is indicated  on figure 107 with number 5?

A.    m. pterygoideus lateralis

B.    galea aponeurotica

C.   venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

D.   m. orbicularis oculi

E.    *m. levator labii superioris

 

299.             What is indicated  on figure 107 with number 6?

A.    m. pterygoideus lateralis

B.    galea aponeurotica

C.   venter frontalis m. occipitofrontalis

D.   m. orbicularis oculi

E.    *discus articularis

 

Step Normal Anatomy

 

Young man felt sharp pain in the back during active tightening on the horizontal bar. Objectively: pain while moving of upper extremity, limited pronation and adduction functions. Sprain of what muscle is presented?

A. *М. latissimus dorsi

B. М. levator scapulae

C. М. romboideus major

D. М. trapezius

E. М. subscapularis

 

 

Three separate bones connected with cartilage in the area of pelvis cavity are noticed on the X-ray of the pelvis. What are these bones?

A. *Iliac, pubic, sciatic

B. Pubic, sciatic, femoral

C. Sciatic, femoral, sacral

D. Iliac, sacral, coccyx

E. Sacral, pubic, coccyx

 

 

A 55-year-old patien was hospitalized in result of the trauma of the medial group of femoral muscles. What kind of movements is the patient unable to do?

A. *Adduction of femur

B. Abduction of femur

C. Flexion of femur

D. Extension of femur

E. Suppination of femur

 

 

A 45-year-old man fell on the right knee and felt the acute pain in the joint. On examination: severe edema on the anterior surface of the knee joint. Crunching sounds are heard while moving the joint. Which bone is destroyed?

A. *Knee-cap

B. Neck of the thigh bone

C. Left epicondyle of the thigh

D. Right epicondyle of the thigh

E. Head of the thigh bone

 

 

During the operation on the hip joint of a 5-year-old child her ligament was damaged which caused bleeding. What ligament was damaged?

A. *Head of the thigh

B. Perpendicular of the acetabule

C. Iliofemoral

D. Pubofemoral

E. Ischiofemoral

 

 

A 6-year-old child fell on the cutting object and traumatized soft tissues between tibia and fibulA. *What kind of bone connection was injured?

A. *Membrane

B. Suture

C. Ligament

D. Fontanel

E. Gomphosis

 

 

It is necessary to take the cerebrospinal fluid from a patient with suspected inflammation of brain tunics. Diagnostic puncture was performed between the arches of the lumbar vertebras. During the puncture the needle went through the following ligament:

A. *Yellow (flaval)

B. Iliolumbar

C. Anterior longitudinal

D. Posterior longitudinal

E. Intertransverse

 

 

A 45-year-old man applied to the trauma unit because of domestic shoulder traumA. *Objectively: flexibility, reduction and pronation functions of the shoulder are absent. What muscle was injured?

A. *Teres major muscle

B. Subscapular muscle

C. Teres minor muscle

D. Infraspinous muscle

E. Supraspinous muscle

 

 

An old woman was hospitalized with acute pain, edema in the right hip joint; the movements in the joint are limited. Which bone or part of it was broken?

A. *The neck of the thigh

B. The body of the thigh bone

C. Condyle of the thigh

D. Pubic bone

E. Ischial bone

 

 

A 7-year-old child can’t abduct the shoulder, raise it to the horizontal level. He can raise the hand to the face only with dorsal side with abduction of the shoulder (with help of supraspinous muscle ) – “bugler” arm. Active function of what muscle is absent?

A. *Deltoid

B. Infraspinous

C. Pectoral major

D. Teres minor

E. Teres major

 

 

A patient complained about being unable to adduct and abduct fingers in the metacarpophalangeal articulations towards and away from the 3rd finger. Which muscles’ function is impaired?

A. *Interosseous muscles

B. Lumbrical muscles

C. Breviflexors of fingers

D. Long flexors of fingers

E. Extensors

 

 

A 35 year old man with a trauma of his left hand was admitted to the traumatology department. Objectively: cut wound of palmar surface of left hand; middle phalanxes of II–V fingers don’t bend. What muscles are damaged?

A. *Superficial finger flexor

B. Profound finger flexor

C. Lumbrical muscles

D. Palmar interosseous muscles

E. Dorsal interosseous muscles

 

 

A 38-year-old patient came to a traumatology centre and complained about an injury of his right hand. Objectively: the patient has a cut wound in the region of the thenar eminence on the right hand; distal phalanx of the I finger cannot be flexed. What muscle was injured?

A. *Long flexor muscle of thumb

B. Short flexor muscle of thumb

C. Short abductor muscle of thumb

D. Opposer muscle of thumb

E. Abductor muscle of thumb

 

 

A patient with neuritis of femoral nerve has disturbed flexion of thigh as well as disturbed crus extension in the knee joint. What muscle’s function is disturbed?

A. *Quadriceps muscle of thigh

B. Biceps muscle of thigh

C. Triceps muscle of thigh

D. Semitendinous muscle

E. Semimembranous muscle

 

 

A patient has difficulties with hand movement. Examination revealed inflammation of common synovial sheath of flexor muscles. It is known from the patient’s anamnesis that he got a stab wound of finger a week ago. Which finger was most probably damaged?

A. *Digitus minimus

B. Pollex

C. Digitus medius

D. Index

E. Digitus anularis

 

 

As a result of an accident a patient has intense painfullness and edema of the anterior crus surface; dorsal flexion of foot is hindered. Function of which crus muscle is most likely to be disturbed?

A. *M.tibialis anterior

B. M.flexor digitorum longus

C. M.flexor hallucis longus

D. M.peroneus longus

E. M.peroneus brevis

 

 

A patient has a deep cut wound on the posterior surface of his shoulder in its middle third. What muscle might be injured?

A. *Triceps muscle of arm

B. Biceps muscle of arm

C. Anconeus muscle

D. Brachial muscle

E. Coracobrachial muscle

 

 

After a trauma a patient lost ability of elbow extension. This might have been caused by dysfunction of the following main muscle:

A. *m. triceps brachii

B. m. subscapularis

C. m. teres major

D. m. infraspinatus

E. m. levator scapulae

 

 

A patient has been diagnosed with a compression fracture of a lumbar vertebrA. *As a result he has a considerable increase in curvature of the lumbar lordosis. Which ligament damage    can induce such changes in the spine curvature?

A. *Anterior longitudinal ligament

B. Posterior longitudinal ligament

C. Yellow ligament

D. Iliolumbar ligament

E. Interspinous ligament

 

 

A patient was admitted to the surgical department with inguinal herniA. *During the operation the surgeon performs plastic surgery on posterior wall of inguinal canal. What structure forms this wall?

A. *Transverse fascia

B. Aponeurosis of abdominal external oblique muscle

C. Inguinal ligament

D. Loose inferior edge of transverse abdominal muscle

E. Peritoneum

 

 

A man with an injury of the dorsal area of his neck was admitted to the resuscitation department. What muscle occupies this area?

A. *M.trapezius

B. M.sternocleidomastoideus

C. M.latissimus dorsi

D. M.rhomboideus minor

E. M.scalenus anterior

 

 

A patient with a knife wound in the left lumbal part was delivered to the emergency hospital. In             course of operation a surgeon found that internal organs were not damaged but the knife injured one of muscles of renal pelvis. What muscle is it?

A. *Greater psoas muscle

B. Iliac muscle

C. Erector muscle of spine

D. Abdominal internal oblique muscle

E. Abdominal external oblique muscle

 

 

During the operation on the hip joint of a 5-year-old child her ligament was damaged which caused bleeding. What ligament was damaged?

A. *The head of the thigh

B. Perpendicular of the acetabule

C. Iliofemoral

D. Pubofemoral

E. Ischiofemoral

 

 

Usually the intravenous injection is done into median cubital vein because it is slightly         movable due to fixation by the soft tissues. What does it fix in the cubital fossa?

A. *Aponeurosis of biceps muscle

B. Tendon of the triceps muscle

C. Brachial muscle

D. Brachioradial muscle

E. Anconeus muscle

 

 

Examination of a patient revealed an abscess of pterygopalatine fossA. *Where can the infection spread to unless the disease is managed in time?

A. *To the orbit

B. To the interpterygoid space

C. To the frontal sinus

D. To the subgaleal temporal space

E To the tympanic cavity

 

 

Examination of a 6-month-old child revealed a delay in closure of the occipital fontanelle. When should it normally close?

A. *Until 3 months

B. Before the child is born

C. Until 6 months

D. Until the end of the first year of life

E. Until the end of the second year of life

 

 

A 25 year old patient was examined by a medical board. Examination revealed pathology of chest. Transverse dimensions were to small and the sternum was strongly protruding. What chest type is it?

A. *Keeled chest

B. Funnel chest

C. Flat chest

D. Cylindrical chest

E. Barrel chest

 

 

A 5-year-old child was admitted to the otorhinolaryngological department with diagnosis – suppurative inflammation of the middle ear. Disease started from the inflammation of the nasopharynx. Through the what canal of the temporal bone did the infection get into the tympanic cavity?

A. *Musculortubal canal

B. Tympanic Canaliculus tympanicus

C. Carotid canal

D. Canaliculus chordal tympani

E. Canaliculi caroticotympanici

 

 

A patient arrived to the oral surgery department with dislocation of temporomandibular joint and injury of its main ligament. Name this ligament:

A. *Lateral

B. Mandibular

C. Styloid-mandibular

D. Pterygoid-mandibular

E. Medial

 

 

The operative dentistry department admitted a newborn girl who choked during sucking. Examination revealed cleft palate arising from non-union of the middle frontal process and maxillary process of the I-st branchial arch. The cleft was located in the palate between:

A. *Os incisivum et processus palatinus maxillae

B. Processus palatinus maxillae dextrae et sinistrae

C. Lamina horizontalis os palatinum dextrum et sinistrum

D. Processus palatinus maxillae et lamina horizontalis os palatinum

E. In the region of canalis incisivus

 

 

An eye trauma caused soft tissues infection of eye-socket. Through what anatomical formation can the infection penetrate into the middle cranial fossa?

A. *Through the superior orbital fissure

B. Through the anterior ethmoidal foramen

C. Through the posterior ethmoidal foramen

D. Through the inferior orbital fissure

E. Through the zygomatic orbital foramen

 

 

Chronic rhinitis was complicated by inflammation of frontal sinus. What nasal meatus did the infection get into this sinus through?

A. *Median

B. Inferior

C. Common

D. Superior

E. Nasopharyngeal

 

 

Trauma of occipital region of head resulted in crack fracture in the region of transverse sinus. What part of occipital bone is damaged?

A. *Squama

B. Left lateral

C. Right lateral

D. Proximal

E. Condyle

 

 

A victim of a road accident has an abruption of a part of mandibular angle, displacement of fragment backwards and upwards. What ligament is responsible for this displacement?

A. *Styloid-mandibular

B. Intraarticular

C. Lateral

D. Sphenoid-mandibular

E. Pterygoid-mandibular

 

 

A 69 year old patient has got an abscess of frontal lobe as a result of purulent infection iasal cavity. What anatomical formation did the infection penetrate through?

A. *Foraminae cribrosae

B. Foramen ovale

C. Foramen ethmoidalae posterior

D. Foramen sphenopalatinum

E. Foramen rotundum

 

 

A patient displays abnormal retrodeviation of his lower jaw as a result of trauma in the region of mandibular coronal process. What muscle is most likely to be damaged?

A. *M.temporalis

B. M.masseter

C. M.pterygoideus lateralis

D. M.pterygoideus medialis

E. M.levator anguli oris

 

 

X-ray examination revealed an accumulation of suppuration in maxillary sinus. Into what nasal meatus excretes the suppuration?

A. *Mediaasal

B. Nasopharyngeal

C. Inferior nasal

D. Superior nasal

E. Commoasal

 

 

A 5 year old child was admitted to the ENT-department with suppurative inflammation of middle ear (tympanitis). It began with the inflammation of nasopharynx. What canal of temporal bone did the infection get into tympanic cavity through?

A. *Musculotubal canal

B. Small canal of chorda tympani

C. Caroticotympanic foramina

D. Small tympanic canal

E. Carotid canal

 

 

A 5 year old child suffers from the neck deformity. Clinical examination revealed such symptoms: apparent flexion of head to the left, his face is turned right, passive movements of the head to the right are restricted. What muscle’s development was disturbed in this case?

A. *Sternocleidomastoid

B. Trapezius

C. Splenius muscle of head

D. Sternosublingual

E. Long muscle of head

 

 

A boxer who got a punch in the region of temporomandibular joint has a traumatic dislocation of mandible. Displacement of what articular surfaces will overstep the limits of physiological norm?

A. *Head of mandible and mandibular fossa

B. Coronoid process and pterygoid fossa

C. Coronoid process and submandibular fossa

D. Head of mandible and submandibular fossa

E. Neck of mandible and submandibular fossa

 

 

Under development of which parts of facial skeleton in the embryonal period is the reason for such a malformation as cleft palate?

A. *Palatine processes

B. Frontal processes

C. Frontal and maxillary processes

D. Mandibular processes

E. Mandibular and palatine processes

 

 

It is necessary to take the cerebrospinal fluid from a patient with suspected inflammation of brain tunics. Diagnostic puncture was performed between the arches of the lumbar vertebras. During the puncture the needle went through the following ligament:

A. *Yellow (flava)

B. Iliolumbar

C. Anterior longitudinal

D. Posterior longitudinal

E. Intertransverse

 

 

A 38-year-old patient came to a traumatology centre and complained about an injury of his right hand. Objectively: the patient has a cut wound in the region of the thenar eminence on the right hand; distal phalanx of the I finger cannot be flexed. What muscle was injured?

A. *Long flexor muscle of thumb

B. Short flexor muscle of thumb

C. Short abductor muscle of thumb

D. Opposer muscle of thumb

E. Abductor muscle of thumb

 

 

During manipulations aimed at treatment of mandible dislocation a physician should pay particular attention to a muscle that pulls a capsule and interarticular disc of temporomandibular articulation exteriorly. What muscle is it?

A. *M. pterygoideus lateralis

B. M. masseter

C. M. pterygoideus medialis

D. M. temporalis

E. M. mylohyoideus

 

 

After a trauma a patient lost ability of elbow extension. This might have been caused by

dysfunction of the following main muscle:

A. *m. triceps brachii

B. m. subscapularis

C. m. teres major

D. m. infraspinatus

E. m. levator scapulae

 

 

A patient has an inflammation in the pterygopalatine fossA. *The infection has spread into the nasal cavity. Which anatomical structure has the infection spread through?

A. *Foramen sphenopalatinum

B. Foramen rotundum

C. Canalis palatinus major

D. Canalis palatinus minor

E. Canalis ptherygoideus

 

 

A patient presents with dysfunction of shin muscles. He cannot raise his body by standing on tiptoe. Which muscle is affected?

A. *M. triceps surae

B. M. tibialis posterior

C. M. extensor digitorum longus

D. M. flexor digitorum longus

E. M. tibialis anterior

 

 

When processing a molar tooth with a dental cutter the dentist has by accident deeply wounded the patient’s cheek and damaged not only the mucosa but also a muscle. Which muscle was hurt?

A. *Buccal muscle

B. Greater zygomatic muscle

C. Masticatory muscle

D. Orbicular muscle of the mouth

E. Mylohyoid muscle

 

 

A patient with a knife wound in the left lumbal part was delivered to the emergency hospital. In course of operation a surgeon found that internal organs were not damaged but the knife injured one of muscles of renal pelvis. What muscle is it?

A. *Greater psoas muscle

B. Iliac muscle

C. Erector muscle of spine

D. Abdominal internal oblique muscle

E. Abdominal external oblique muscle